In today’s digital landscape, security is of utmost importance. Organizations and individuals alike must stay vigilant to protect their sensitive data and systems from various threats.
This article presents 75 important multiple-choice questions (MCQs) related to security, along with their correct answers and explanations.
1. Management within your organization has defined a use case to support confidentiality of PII stored in a database. Which of the following solutions will BEST meet this need?
A. Hashing
B. Digital signature
C. Encryption
D. Smart card
Answer: C.
Reason: Encryption is the best choice to provide confidentiality of any type of information, including Personally Identifiable Information (PII) stored in a database. Hashing will support a use case of supporting integrity.
Digital signatures will support a use case of supporting non-repudiation. A smart card will support a use case of supporting authentication.
2. Management has implemented a policy stating that messages sent between upper-level executives must arrive without any changes. The IT department is tasked with implementing technical controls to meet this need. Which security goal does this policy address?
A. Confidentiality
B. Integrity
C. Availability
D. Authentication
Answer: B.
Reason: Integrity provides assurances that data has not been modified and integrity is commonly enforced with hashing. Confidentiality prevents unauthorized disclosure of data, but doesn’t address modifications of data.
Availability ensures systems are up and operational when needed and uses fault tolerance and redundancy methods. Authentication provides proof that users are who they claim to be.
3. Your organization recently implemented two servers that act as failover devices for each other. Which security goal is your organization pursuing?
A. Obfuscation
B. Integrity
C. Confidentiality
D. Availability
Answer: D.
Reason: Failover devices increase availability. A failover cluster uses redundant servers to ensure a service will continue to operate even if one of the servers fails. Obfuscation methods attempt to make something unclear or difficult to understand and are not related to failover devices. Integrity methods ensure that data has not been modified.
Confidentiality methods such as encryption prevent the unauthorized disclosure of data.
4. You are tasked with improving the overall security for a database server. Which of the following is a preventive control that will assist with this goal?
A. Disabling unnecessary services
B. Identifying the initial baseline configuration
C. Monitoring logs for trends
D. Implementing a backup and restoration plan
Answer: A.
Reason: Disabling unnecessary services is one of several steps you can take to harden a server. It is a preventive control because it helps prevent an incident. Identifying the initial baseline configuration is useful to determine the security posture of the system, but by itself it doesn’t prevent attacks.
Monitoring logs and trend analysis are detective controls, not preventive controls. A backup and restoration plan is a corrective control.
5. An IT department recently had its hardware budget reduced, but the organization still expects them to maintain availability of services. Which of the following choices would BEST help them maintain availability with a reduced budget?
A. Failover clusters
B. Virtualization
C. Bollards
D. Hashing
Answer: B.
Reason: Virtualization provides increased availability because it is much easier to rebuild a virtual server than a physical server after a failure. Virtualization supports a reduced budget because virtual servers require less hardware, less space in a data center, less power, and less heating and air conditioning. Failover clusters are more expensive.
Bollards are physical barriers that block vehicles. Hashing provides integrity, not availability. 1.
6. You want to test new security controls before deploying them. Which of the following technologies provides the MOST flexibility to meet this goal?
A. Baselines
B. Hardening techniques
C. Virtualization technologies
D. Patch management programs
Answer: C.
Reason: Virtualization provides a high degree of flexibility when testing security controls because testers can easily rebuild virtual systems or revert them using a snapshot. Baselines provide a known starting point, but aren’t flexible because they stay the same. Hardening techniques make systems more secure than their default configuration.
Patch management programs ensure patches are deployed, but do not test security controls.
7. You suspect that traffic in your network is being rerouted to an unauthorized router within your network. Which of the following command-line tools would help you narrow down the problem?
A. ping
B. tracert
C. ipconfig
D. netstat
Answer: B.
Reason: You can use tracert to track packet flow through a network and if an extra router has been added to your network, tracert will identify it. You can use ping to check connectivity with a remote system, but it doesn’t show the route.
The ipconfig command will show the network settings on a Windows computer, but it doesn’t identify failed routers. Netstat shows active connections and other network statistics on a local system, but it doesn’t identify network paths.
8. The First Bank of Springfield has been experiencing widespread fraud recently. Attackers are transferring funds out of customer accounts to other banks. The bank began requiring customers to obtain credentials in person at the bank.
However, this hasn’t reduced the number of fraudulent transactions. After reviewing available logs, investigators determined that these fraudulent transactions are conducted with the customer’s actual credentials. Which of the following security controls should be strengthened to reduce these incidents?
A. Authentication
B. Identification
C. Accounting
D. Authorization
Answer: A.
Reason: Authentication should be increased, such as by forcing users to use stronger passwords. The scenario indicates that attackers are somehow obtaining customer credentials and using them to conduct the fraudulent transactions.
Identification is simply claiming an identity, and having customers come into the bank to obtain their credentials increases identification, but this didn’t help. Accounting is typically performed by reviewing logs, but the current logs are documenting the fraud. Authorization indicates what customers can do, but there isn’t any indication that authorization is a problem.
9. An outside security auditor recently completed an in-depth security audit on your network. One of the issues he reported was related to passwords. Specifically, he found the following passwords used on the network:
Pa$$, 1@W2, and G7bT3.
Which of the following should be changed to avoid the problem shown with these passwords?
A. Password complexity
B. Password length
C. Password history
D. Password reuse
Answer: B.
Reason: The password policy should be changed to increase the minimum password length of passwords. These passwords are only four and five characters long, which is too short to provide adequate security. They are complex because they include a mixture of at least three of the following character types: uppercase letters, lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters. Password history and password reuse should be addressed if users are reusing the same passwords, but the scenario doesn’t indicate this is a problem.
10. When you log on to your online bank account, you are also able to access a partner’s credit card site, check-ordering services, and a mortgage site without entering your credentials again.
Which of the following does this describe?
A. SSO
B. Same sign-on
C. SAML
D. Kerberos
Answer: A.
Reason: This is an example of single sign-on (SSO) capabilities because you can log on once and access all the resources without entering your credentials again. Same sign-on requires you to reenter your credentials for each new site, but you use the same credentials.
Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) is an SSO solution used for web-based applications and the bank might be using SAML, but other SSO solutions are also available. Kerberos is used in an internal network.
11. Your network uses an authentication service based on the X.500 specification. When encrypted, it uses TLS. Which authentication service is your network using?
A. SAML
B. Diameter
C. Kerberos
D. LDAP
Answer: D.
Reason: Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) uses X.500- based phrases to identify components and Secure LDAP can be encrypted with Transport Layer Security (TLS).
Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) is an Extensible Markup Language (XML) used for single sign-on (SSO), but it is not based on X.500. Diameter is an alternative to RADIUS used in some remote access solutions. Kerberos is not based on X.500.
12. You’re asked to identify who is accessing a spreadsheet containing employee salary data. Detailed logging is configured correctly on this file. However, you are unable to identify a specific person who is accessing the file. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason?
A. Shared accounts are not prohibited.
B. Guest accounts are disabled.
C. Permissions for the file were assigned to a group.
D. Account lockout has been enabled.
Answer: A.
Reason: The most likely reason of those given is that shared accounts are not prohibited, allowing multiple users to access the same file. For example, if the Guest account is enabled and used as a shared account by all users, the logs will indicate the Guest account accessed the file, but it w o n ’t identify specific individuals.
It doesn’t matter how permissions are assigned in order for a log to identify who accessed the file. Account lockout stops someone from guessing a password, but it doesn’t affect file access logs.
13. Interns from a local college frequently work at your company. Some interns work with the database developers, some interns work with the web application developers, and some interns work with both developers.
Interns working with the database developers require specific privileges, and interns working with the web application developers require different privileges. Which of the following is the simplest method to meet these requirements?
A. Use generic accounts.
B. Create user-based privileges.
C. Use group-based privileges.
D. Grant the interns access to the Guest account.
Answer: C.
Reason: Using group-based privileges is the best choice to meet the needs of this scenario. For example, you can create a DB_Group and a Web_Group, assign appropriate privileges to the groups, and add intern accounts to the groups based on their assignments.
Generic accounts such as the Guest account should not be used. User-based privileges take too much time to manage because you’d have to implement them separately.
14. You are configuring a file server used to share files and folders among employees within your organization. However, employees should not be able to access all folders on this server.
Which of the following choices is the BEST method to manage security for these folders?
A. Assign permissions to each user as needed.
B. Wait for users to request permission and then assign the appropriate permissions.
C. Delegate authority to assign these permissions.
D. Use security groups with appropriate permissions.
Answer: D.
Reason: You can create security groups, place users into these groups, and grant access to the folders by assigning appropriate permissions to the security groups. F o r example, the security groups might be Sales, Marketing, and HR, and you place users into the appropriate group based on their job.
This is an example of using group-based privileges. Assigning permissions to each user individually has a high administrative overhead. Waiting for users to ask will also increase administrative overhead.
Although delegating authority to assign permissions might work, it doesn’t provide the same level of security as centrally managed groups, and without groups, it will still have a high administrative overhead for someone.
15. The Retirement Castle uses groups for ease of administration and management. They recently hired Jasper as their new accountant. Jasper needs access to all the files and folders used by the Accounting department.
Which of the following should the administrator do to give Jasper appropriate access?
A. Create an account for Jasper and add the account to the Accounting group.
B. Give Jasper the password for the Guest account.
C. Create an account for Jasper and use rule-based access control for accounting.
D. Create an account for Jasper and add the account to the Administrators group.
Answer: A.
Reason: The administrator should create an account for Jasper and add it to the Accounting group. Because the organization uses groups, it makes sense that they have an Accounting group.
The Guest account should be disabled to prevent the use of generic accounts. This scenario describes role-based access control, not rule-based access control. Jasper does not require administrator privileges, so his account should not be added to the Administrators group.
16. You need to send several large files containing proprietary data to a business partner. Which of the following is the BEST choice for this task?
A. FTP
B. SNMPv3
C. SFTP
D. SRTP
Answer: C.
Reason: Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) is the best choice. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is the best choice to send large files if they don’t contain sensitive data. These files contain proprietary data so they should be encrypted and SFTP encrypts the files using Secure Shell (SSH).
Simple Network Management Protocol version 3 (SNMPv3) is used to manage network devices, not transfer files. The Secure Real-time Transport Protocol (SRTP) provides encryption, message authentication, and integrity for streaming media.
17. Your organization is planning to establish a secure link between one of your mail servers and a business partner’s mail server. The connection will use the Internet. Which protocol is the BEST choice?
A. TLS
B. SMTP
C. HTTP
D. SSH
Answer: A.
Reason: Transport Layer Security (TLS) is a good choice to create a secure connection between two systems over the Internet. Although the mail servers will likely exchange mail using Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), SMTP by itself will not create a secure link.
Similarly, Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) doesn’t create a secure link. Although Secure Shell (SSH) creates a secure connection, it isn’t used with SMTP.
18. Bart is adding a DMZ into his organization’s network. Which of the following is the BEST description of why he would do so?
A. To increase security for servers accessed from public networks
B. To provide a secure physical location for networking equipment
C. To lure attackers to a fake server or fake network
D. To cache data retrieved from a web server
Answer: A.
Reason: A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is a logical buffer zone for servers accessed from public networks such as the Internet, and it provides a layer of security for servers in the DMZ. A wiring closet or server room provides physical security for networking equipment.
A honeypot is a fake server used to lure attackers and a honeynet is a fake network. Proxy servers cache data retrieved from web servers.
19. Your organization wants to prevent employees from accessing file sharing web sites. Which of the following choices will meet this need?
A. Content inspection
B. Malware inspection
C. URL filter
D. Web application firewall
Answer: C.
Reason: A URL filter blocks access to specific web sites based on their URLs. Proxy servers and unified threat management (UTM) devices include URL filters.
UTM devices also include content inspection to identify and filter out different types of files and traffic, and malware inspection to identify and block malware. A web application firewall (WAF) protects a web server from incoming attacks.
20. Your organization hosts several web servers in a web farm. They have recently been attacked, resulting in unacceptable downtime. Management wants to implement a solution that will provide protection for the web farm and include load balancing to improve the overall performance of the web farm.
Which of the following will BEST meet this need?
A. Stateless firewall
B. Stateful firewall
C. Web application firewall
D. Host-based firewall
Answer: C.
Reason: A web application firewall (WAF) is the best choice. You can place it in the demilitarized zone (DMZ) and the web farm servers in the internal network. In addition to protecting the web servers, the WAF also provides load balancing. None of the other solutions provides load balancing. A stateless firewall filters traffic using an access control list.
A stateful firewall filters traffic based on the state of a packet within a session. A host-based firewall provides protection for a single host.
21. Management suspects that employees have been sending proprietary data out of the network via email. They want to implement a solution that will detect and block similar incidents in the future.
Which of the following is the BEST choice to meet this need?
A. Mail gateway
B. UTM appliance
C. Forward proxy
D. Reverse proxy
Answer: A.
Reason: A mail gateway is placed between an email server and the Internet and mail gateways typically include data loss prevention (DLP) capabilities. They can inspect the contents of outgoing traffic looking for key words and block any traffic containing proprietary data.
A unified threat management (UTM) device includes content inspection, but this most often blocks specific types of traffic, or specific file types. A mail gateway is more focused on email. Proxy servers are typically used for web traffic. They don’t include the ability to filter email.
22. You are tasked with configuring a switch so that it separates VoIP and data traffic. Which of the following provides the BEST solution?
A. NAC
B. DMZ
C. SRTP
D. VLAN
Answer: D.
Reason: A virtual local area network (VLAN) provides separation for traffic and can be configured to separate Voice over IP (VoIP) traffic and data traffic. Network access control (NAC) solutions inspect clients for health after they connect to a network. A demilitarized zone (DMZ) provides a layer of protection for Internet-facing systems, while also allowing clients to connect to them.
Secure Real-time Transport Protocol (SRTP) provides encryption and authentication for Real-time Transport Protocol (RTP) traffic. RTP is used for audio/video streaming, such as in video teleconferencing applications.
23. Your organization hosts an e-commerce business that has become quite successful recently. It includes a web farm and a database server within the DMZ. IT management is concerned that there isn’t enough staff working around the clock to protect these servers.
Which of the following would provide the BEST automated protection for these servers?
A. NIDS and HIDS
B. NIPS and HIPS
C. SIEM and NIPS
D. SIEM and NIDS
Answer: B.
Reason: The best automated solution of the available choices is a network-based intrusion prevention system (NIPS) protecting the demilitarized zone (DMZ), and host-based intrusion prevention systems (HIPSs) on the database server and web servers. An intrusion detection system (IDS) detects intrusions and reports them, but it does not provide automated responses to protect the systems.
A security information and event management (SIEM) system provides aggregation and correlation services for log entries, but it doesn’t provide automated protection.
24. Management is concerned about malicious activity and wants to implement a security control that will detect unusual traffic on the network.
Which of the following is the BEST choice to meet this goal?
A. Network-based firewall
B. Signature-based IDS
C. Anomaly-based IDS
D. Honeynet
Answer: C.
Reason: An anomaly-based (also called heuristic-based or behaviorbased) intrusion detection system (IDS) compares current activity with a previously created baseline to detect any anomalies or unusual traffic on a network.
A network-based firewall will block and allow traffic, but it does not detect unusual traffic. Signature-based IDS systems use signatures similar to antivirus software. A honeynet is a group of servers configured as honeypots. A honeynet is designed to look valuable to an attacker and can divert attacks.
25. Of the following choices, what can you use to divert malicious attacks on your network away from valuable data to worthless, fabricated data?
A. IPS
B. Proxy server
C. Web application firewall
D. Honeypot
Answer: D.
Reason: A honeypot can divert malicious attacks to a harmless area of your network, such as away from production servers holding valid data. An intrusion prevention system (IPS) can block attacks, but it doesn’t divert them.
A proxy server can filter and cache content from web pages, but it doesn’t divert attacks. A web application firewall (WAF) is an additional firewall designed to protect a web application.
26. Your organization frequently has guests visiting in various conference rooms throughout the building. These guests need access to the Internet via the wireless network, but should not be able to access internal network resources. Employees need access to both the internal network and the Internet.
Which of the following would BEST meet this need?
A. NAT
B. DMZ
C. VPN
D. 802.1x
Answer: D.
Reason: An 802.1x server provides port-based authentication and can authenticate clients. Clients that cannot authenticate (the guests in this scenario) can be redirected to the guest network, which grants them Internet access but not access to the internal network. None of the other solutions provides port security or adequate network separation.
Network Address Translation (NAT) translates private IP addresses to public IP addresses. A demilitarized zone (DMZ) provides a buffer zone between a public network and a private network for public-facing servers. A virtual private network (VPN) provides access to a private network via a public network.
27. Management asks you if you can modify the wireless network to prevent users from easily discovering it. Which of the following would you modify to meet this goal?
A. CCMP
B. WPA2 Enterprise
C. SSID broadcast
D. MAC address filter
Answer: C.
Reason: You can disable service set identifier (SSID) broadcasting to prevent users from easily discovering the wireless networks. None of the other methods hide the network.
Counter Mode Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) provides stronger security for Wi-Fi Protected Access II (WPA2) and WPA2 Enterprise adds authentication for a wireless network. Media access control (MAC) address filtering can restrict access to the wireless network.
28. Marge, a security administrator, is tasked with ensuring that all devices have updated virus definition files before they can access network resources. Which of the following technologies would help her accomplish this goal?
A. NIDS
B. NAC
C. DLP
D. DMZ
Answer: B.
Reason: Network access control (NAC) inspects clients for health, including having up-to-date virus definition files and can restrict network access to unhealthy clients to a remediation network.
A network intrusion detection system (NIDS) can detect incoming attacks, but doesn’t inspect internal clients. A data loss prevention (DLP) system typically examines outgoing traffic looking for confidential data. A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is a buffer zone between the Internet and an internal network.
29. Your organization is hosting a wireless network with an 802.1x server using PEAP. On Thursday, users report they can no longer access the wireless network, but they could access it on the previous day.
Administrators verified the network configuration matches the baseline, there aren’t any hardware outages, and the wired network is operational. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for this problem?
A. The RADIUS server certificate expired.
B. DNS is providing incorrect host names.
C. DHCP is issuing duplicate IP addresses.
D. MAC filtering is enabled.
Answer: A.
Reason: The most likely cause is that the Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) server certificate expired. An 802.1x server is implemented as a RADIUS server and Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol (PEAP) requires a certificate, which is a key clue in this question.
If Domain Name System (DNS) or Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) failed, it would affect both wired and wireless users. Media access control (MAC) address filtering might cause this symptom if all MAC addresses were blocked, but the scenario states that there weren’t any network configuration changes.
30. Lisa has created an application on her development computer. She wants to test it on a Linux-based computer she commonly uses for testing.
However, she wants to ensure it is isolated when she tests it. Which of the following is the BEST solution to meet her needs?
A. Use chroot.
B. Sideload the application.
C. Use FDE.
D. Use chmod.
Answer: A.
Reason: The best answer of the available choices is to use the chroot command to isolate the application within a sandbox. Sideloading is the process of copying an application to a mobile device, not a Linux-based computer. Full disk encryption (FDE) is associated with mobile devices and would not isolate an application.
The chmod command is used to change permissions on a Linux system.
31. Your organization recently purchased some laptops that include a TPM. Which of the following BEST identifies what the TPM provides?
A. Detection of unauthorized data transfers
B. A hardware root of trust
C. Sandboxing
D. An external security device used to store cryptographic keys
Answer: B.
Reason: A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) includes an encryption key burned into the chip, and this key provides a hardware root of trust. Data loss prevention (DLP) systems detect unauthorized data transfers.
Sandboxing provides an isolated area on a system, typically used for testing. A hardware security module (HSM) is an external security device used to store cryptographic keys, but a TPM is a chip within the system.
32. Your organization has recently rented access to computing resources via a cloud. Administrators within your organization apply patches to the operating system.
Which of the following choices BEST describes this cloud deployment model?
A. Community
B. Software as a Service
C. Infrastructure as a Service
D. Hybrid
Answer: C.
Reason: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing option where the vendor provides access to a computer, but customers must manage the system, including keeping it up to date with current patches.
A community cloud is shared among several organizations, but the scenario doesn’t indicate the resources are shared. Software as a Service (SaaS) provides access to applications, such as email, but not to the operating system. An IaaS solution can be public, private, or a hybrid solution. A hybrid cloud is a combination of two or more public, private, and/or community clouds.
33. Homer noticed that several generators within the nuclear power plant have been turning on without user interaction. Security investigators discovered that an unauthorized file was installed, causing these generators to start at timed intervals.
Further, they determined this file was installed during a visit by external engineers. What should Homer recommend to mitigate this threat in the future?
A. Create an internal CA.
B. Implement WPA2 Enterprise.
C. Implement patch management processes.
D. Configure the SCADA within a VLAN.
Answer: D.
Reason: The generators are likely controlled within a supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) system and isolating them within a virtual local area network (VLAN) will protect them from unauthorized access.
An internal Certificate Authority (CA) issues and manages certificates within a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI), but there isn’t any indication certificates are in use. Wi-Fi Protected Access II (WPA2) secures wireless networks, but doesn’t protect SCADA networks.
Patch management processes help ensure systems are kept up to date with patches, but this doesn’t apply in this scenario.
34. Management wants to ensure that employees do not print any documents that include customer or employee PII. Which of the following solutions would meet this goal?
A. HSM
B. TPM
C. VLAN
D. DLP
Answer: D.
Reason: A data loss prevention (DLP) solution can detect documents sent to a printer that contain Personally Identifiable Information (PII) and prevent them from printing. A hardware security module (HSM) and a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) both provide full disk encryption, but cannot block documents sent to a printer.
A virtual local area network (VLAN) segments traffic and can help protect a supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) system, but isn’t selective about documents sent to a printer.
35. A tech company recently discovered an attack on its organization, resulting in a significant data breach of customer data. After investigating the attack, they realized it was very sophisticated and likely originated from a foreign country.
Which of the following identifies the MOST likely threat actor in this attack?
A. Hacktivist
B. APT
C. Competitors
D. Insiders
Answer: B.
Reason: This was most likely an advanced persistent threat (APT) because it was a sophisticated attack and originated from a foreign country. A hacktivist launches attacks to further a cause, but the scenario didn’t mention any cause.
Competitors might launch attacks, but they would typically focus on proprietary data rather than customer data. An insider would not launch attacks from a foreign country.
36. A recent antivirus scan on a server detected a Trojan. A technician removed the Trojan, but a security administrator expressed concern that unauthorized personnel might be able to access data on the server.
The security administrator decided to check the server further. Of the following choices, what is the administrator MOST likely looking for on this server?
A. Backdoor
B. Logic bomb
C. Rootkit
D. Botnet
Answer: A.
Reason: The security administrator is most likely looking for a backdoor because Trojans commonly create backdoors, and a backdoor allows unauthorized personnel to access data on the system.
Logic bombs and rootkits can create backdoor accounts, but Trojans don’t create logic bombs and would rarely install a rootkit. The computer might be joined to a botnet, but a botnet is a group of computers.
37. After Marge turned on her computer, she saw a message indicating that unless she made a payment, her hard drive would be formatted. What does this indicate?
A. Keylogger
B. Ransomware
C. Backdoor
D. Trojan
Answer: B.
Reason: Ransomware attempts to take control of user’s system or data and then demands ransom to return control. Keyloggers capture a user’s keystrokes and store them in a file.
This file can be automatically sent to an attacker or manually retrieved depending on the keylogger. It’s possible that Marge’s computer was infected with a Trojan, which created a backdoor. However, not all Trojans or backdoor accounts demand payment as ransom.
38. An organization’s security policy requires employees to place all discarded paper documents in containers for temporary storage. These papers are later burned in an incinerator.
Which of the following attacks are these actions MOST likely trying to prevent?
A. Shoulder surfing
B. Tailgating
C. Vishing
D. Dumpster diving
Answer: D.
Reason: Dumpster diving is the practice of looking for documents in the trash dumpsters, but shredding or incinerating documents ensures dumpster divers cannot retrieve any paper documents.
Shoulder surfers attempt to view something on a monitor or other screen, not papers. Tailgating refers to entering a secure area by following someone else. Vishing is a form of phishing using the phone.
39. Users in your organization have reported receiving a similar email from the same sender. The email included a link, but after recent training on emerging threats, all the users chose not to click the link. Security investigators determined the link was malicious and was designed to download ransomware.
Which of the following BEST describes the email?
A. Phishing
B. Spear phishing
C. Spam
D. Vishing
Answer: B.
Reason: This email is a form of spear phishing because it is targeting users in the same organization. While it is a form of phishing, spear phishing is a better answer because the email targeted users in the same organization.
It is also spam because it is unwanted email, but not all spam is malicious. Phishing and spear phishing are types of attacks using email. Vishing is similar to phishing, but it uses telephone technology.
40. Your local library is planning to purchase new computers that patrons can use for Internet research. Which of the following are the BEST choices to protect these computers? (Select TWO.)
A. Mantrap
B. Anti-malware software
C. Cable locks
D. Disk encryption
Answer: B, C.
Reason: Anti-malware software and cable locks are the best choices to protect these computers. Anti-malware software protects the systems from viruses and other malware. The cable locks deter theft of the computers.
A mantrap prevents tailgating, but this is unrelated to this question. Disk encryption is useful if the computers have confidential information, but it wouldn’t be appropriate to put confidential information on a public computer.
41. You are troubleshooting an intermittent connectivity issue with a webserver. After examining the logs, you identify repeated connection attempts from various IP addresses.
You realize these connection attempts are overloading the server, preventing it from responding to other connections. Which of the following is MOST likely occurring?
A. DDoS attack
B. DoS attack
C. Amplification attack
D. Salting attack
Answer: A.
Reason: A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack includes attacks from multiple systems with the goal of depleting the target’s resources and this scenario indicates multiple connection attempts from different IP addresses.
A DoS attack comes from a single system, and a SYN flood is an example of a DoS attack. While the DDoS attack may be an amplification attack (an attack that significantly increases the amount of traffic sent to the victim), the scenario doesn’t give enough details to identify this as an amplification attack. Salting is a method used to prevent brute force attacks to discover passwords.
42. You are reviewing security controls and their usefulness. You notice that account lockout policies are in place. Which of the following attacks will these policies thwart? (Select TWO.)
A. DNS poisoning
B. Replay
C. Brute force
D. Buffer overflow
E. Dictionary
Answer: C, E.
Reason: Brute force and dictionary attacks attempt to guess passwords, but an account lockout control locks an account after the wrong password is guessed too many times.
The other attacks are not password attacks, so they aren’t mitigated using account lockout controls. Domain Name System (DNS) poisoning attempts to redirect web browsers to malicious URLs.
Replay attacks attempt to capture packets to impersonate one of the parties in an online session. Buffer overflow attacks attempt to overwhelm online applications with unexpected code or data.
43. Security analysts recently discovered that users in your organization are inadvertently installing malware on their systems after visiting the comptai.org web site.
Users have a legitimate requirement to visit the comptia.org web site. Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation for this activity?
A. Smurf
B. Typo squatting
C. Fuzzing
D. Replay
Answer: B.
Reason: Typo squatting (or URL hijacking) uses a similar domain name to redirect traffic. In this scenario, the last two letters in comptia are swapped in the malicious domain name, and that site is attempting to download malware onto the user systems.
A smurf attack is unrelated to web sites. Fuzzing tests an application’s ability to handle random data. A replay attack attempts to replay data with the intent of impersonating one of the parties.
44. An attacker recently attacked a web server hosted by your company. After investigation, security professionals determined that the attacker used a previously unknown application exploit.
Which of the following BEST identifies this attack?
A. Buffer overflow
B. Zero-day attack
C. Man-in-the-browser
D. Session hijacking
Answer: B.
Reason: A zero-day attack takes advantage of an undocumented exploit or an exploit that is unknown to the public. A buffer overflow attack sends unexpected data to a system to access system memory or cause it to crash.
Although some buffer overflow attacks are unknown, others are known. If the server isn’t kept up to date with patches, it can be attacked with a known buffer overflow attack.
A man-in-the-browser attack is a type of proxy Trojan horse that takes advantage of vulnerabilities in web browsers, not web servers. Session hijacking takes over a user’s session and isn’t related to an attack on a server.
45. While reviewing logs for a web application, a developer notices that it has crashed several times reporting a memory error. Shortly after it crashes, the logs show malicious code that isn’t part of a known application.
Which of the following is MOST likely occurring?
A. Buffer overflow
B. ARP poisoning
C. Privilege escalation
D. Replay
Answer: A.
Reason: Buffer overflow attacks often cause an application to crash and expose system memory. Attackers then write malicious code into the exposed memory and use different techniques to get the system to run this code.
None of the other attacks insert malicious code into memory. An Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) poisoning attack attempts to mislead systems about the source media access control (MAC) address.
Privilege escalation techniques attempt to give an attacker more rights and permissions. In a replay attack, the attacker intercepts data and typically attempts to use the intercepted data to impersonate a user or system.
46. Management at your organization is planning to hire a development firm to create a sophisticated web application. One of their primary goals is to ensure that personnel involved with the project frequently collaborate with each other throughout the project.
Which of the following is an appropriate model for this project?
A. Waterfall
B. SDLC
C. Agile
D. Secure DevOps
Answer: C.
Reason: The agile software development model is flexible, ensures that personnel interact with each other throughout a project, and is the best of the available choices.
The waterfall model isn’t as flexible and focuses instead on completing the project in stages. Both agile and waterfall are software development life cycle (SDLC) models, which is a generic concept designed to provide structure for software development projects.
Secure DevOps is an agile-aligned development methodology that focuses on security considerations throughout a project.
47. Your organization is preparing to deploy a web-based application, which will accept user input. Which of the following will BEST test the reliability of this application to maintain availability and data integrity?
A. Model verification
B. Input validation
C. Error handling
D. Dynamic analysis
Answer: D.
Reason: Dynamic analysis techniques (such as fuzzing) can test the application’s ability to maintain availability and data integrity for some scenarios. Fuzzing sends random data to an application to verify the random data doesn’t crash the application or expose the system to a data breach.
Model verification ensures that the software meets specifications and fulfills its intended purpose, but it doesn’t focus on reliability or integrity. Input validation and error-handling techniques protect applications, but do not test them.
48. An attacker has launched several successful XSS attacks on a web application within your DMZ. Which of the following are the BEST choices to protect the web server and prevent this attack? (Select TWO.)
A. Dynamic code analysis
B. Input validation
C. Code obfuscation
D. WAF
E. Normalization
Answer: B, D.
Reason: Input validation and a web application firewall (WAF) are the best choices of the available answers. Both provide protection against cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks. Input validation validates data before using it to help prevent XSS attacks.
A WAF acts as an additional firewall that monitors, filters, and/or blocks HTTP traffic to a web server. None of the other answers will directly prevent XSS attacks. Dynamic code analysis (such as fuzzing) can test code. Code obfuscation makes the code more difficult to read.
Normalization refers to organizing tables and columns in a database to reduce redundant data and improve overall database performance.
49. Ziffcorp is developing a new technology that they expect to become a huge success when it’s released. The CIO is concerned about someone stealing their company secrets related to this technology.
Which of the following will help the CIO identify potential dangers related to the loss of this technology?
A. Threat assessment
B. Vulnerability assessment
C. Privacy threshold assessment
D. Privacy impact assessment
Answer: A.
Reason: A threat assessment evaluates potential dangers that can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and/or availability of data or a system. It evaluates threats and attempts to identify the potential impact from threats.
A vulnerability assessment evaluates vulnerabilities (or weaknesses), not potential dangers. A privacy threshold assessment helps an organization identify Personally Identifiable Information (PII) within a system and a privacy impact assessment attempts to identify potential risks related to PII. However, this scenario doesn’t mention PII.
50. You are performing a risk assessment and you need to calculate the average expected loss of an incident. Which of the following value combinations would you MOST likely use?
A. ALE and ARO
B. ALE and SLE
C. SLE and ARO
D. ARO and ROI
Answer: A.
Reason: The expected loss is the single loss expectancy (SLE) and you can calculate it with the annual loss expectancy (ALE) and annual rate of occurrence (ARO), as ALE / ARO.
The SLE is what you are trying to determine, so you don’t have that value. The return on investment (ROI) will not help in identifying the SLE.
51. You recently completed a vulnerability scan on your network. It reported that several servers are missing key operating system patches.
However, after checking the servers, you’ve verified the servers have these patches installed. Which of the following BEST describes this?
A. False negative
B. Misconfiguration on servers
C. False positive
D. Non-credentialed scan
Answer: C.
Reason: In this scenario, the vulnerability scanner reported a false positive indicating that the servers had a vulnerability, but in reality, the servers did not have the vulnerability.
A false negative occurs if a vulnerability scanner does not report a known vulnerability. There isn’t any indication that the servers are misconfigured.
The scenario doesn’t indicate if the scan was run under the context of an account (credentialed or non-credentialed), so this answer isn’t relevant to the question.
52. You want to identify all the services running on a server in your network. Which of the following tools is the BEST choice to meet this goal?
A. Penetration test
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Sniffer
D. Port scanner
Answer: D.
Reason: A port scanner identifies open ports on a system and is commonly used to determine what services are running on the system. A penetration test attempts to exploit a vulnerability.
A protocol analyzer (also called a sniffer) could analyze traffic and discover protocols in use, but this would be much more difficult than using a port scanner.
53. Lisa needs to identify if a risk exists within a web application and identify potential misconfigurations on the server. However, she should passively test the security controls.
Which of the following is the BEST choice to meet her needs?
A. Perform a penetration test.
B. Perform a port scan.
C. Perform a vulnerability scan.
D. Perform traffic analysis with a sniffer.
Answer: C.
Reason: A vulnerability scan identifies vulnerabilities that attackers can potentially exploit, and vulnerability scanners perform passive testing. A penetration test actively tests the application and can potentially compromise the system.
A port scan only identifies open ports. A sniffer can capture traffic for analysis, but it doesn’t check for security controls.
54. A network administrator needs to identify the type of traffic and packet flags used in traffic sent from a specific IP address. Which of the following is the BEST tool to meet this need?
A. SIEM
B. Netcat
C. Protocol analyzer
D. Vulnerability scan
Answer: C.
Reason: A protocol analyzer (or sniffer) can capture traffic sent over a network and identify the type of traffic, the source of the traffic, and protocol flags used within individual packets.
A security information and event management (SIEM) system provides a centralized solution for collecting, analyzing, and managing log data from multiple sources, but it doesn’t collect and analyze packets. Netcat is useful for remotely administering servers, but it doesn’t collect and analyze packets. A vulnerability scan identifies vulnerabilities on a network.
55. Lisa has been hired as a penetration tester by your organization to test the security of a web server. She wants to identify the operating system and get some information on services and applications used by the server.
Which of the following tools will BEST meet this need?
A. SIEM
B. Netcat
C. Tcpdump
D. Gray box test
Answer: B.
Reason: Netcat can easily be used for banner grabbing and banner grabbing will provide her information on the operating system and get some information on services and applications used by the server. A security information and event management (SIEM) system provides a centralized solution for collecting, analyzing, and managing data from multiple sources.
Tcpdump is a command-line tool used to capture packets, but it doesn’t query systems for data. A gray box test indicates the tester has some knowledge of the target, but it doesn’t indicate the type of test used by a tester.
56. An organization wants to provide protection against malware attacks. Administrators have installed antivirus software on all computers.
Additionally, they implemented a firewall and an IDS on the network. Which of the following BEST identifies this principle?
A. Implicit deny
B. Layered security
C. Least privilege
D. Flood guard
Answer: B.
Reason: Layered security (or defense in depth) implements multiple controls to provide several layers of protection. In this case, the antivirus software provides one layer of protection while the firewall and the intrusion detection system (IDS) provide additional layers. Implicit deny blocks access unless it has been explicitly allowed.
Least privilege ensures that users are granted only the access they need to perform their jobs, and no more. A flood guard attempts to block SYN flood attacks.
57. A security professional needs to identify a physical security control that will identify and authenticate individuals before allowing them to pass, and restrict passage to only a single person at a time.
Which of the following should the professional recommend?
A. Tailgating
B. Smart cards
C. Biometrics
D. Mantrap
Answer: D.
Reason: A mantrap controls access to a secure area and only allows a single person to pass at a time. The scenario describes the social engineering tactic of tailgating, not the control to prevent it.
Some sophisticated mantraps include identification and authorization systems, such as biometric systems or smart cards and PINs. However, biometrics and smart cards used for physical security do not restrict passage to one person at a time unless they are combined with a mantrap.
58. Your company’s web site experiences a large number of client requests during certain times of the year. Which of the following could your company add to ensure the web site’s availability during these times?
A. Fail-open cluster
B. Certificates
C. Web application firewall
D. Load balancing
Answer: D.
Reason: Load balancing shifts the load among multiple systems and can increase the site’s availability by adding additional nodes when necessary. A failover cluster also provides high availability, but there is no such thing as a fail-open cluster. Certificates help ensure confidentiality and integrity, but do not assist with availability.
A web application firewall helps protect a web server against attacks, but it does not increase availability from normal client requests.
59. Which of the following is the LOWEST cost solution for fault tolerance?
A. Load balancing
B. Round-robin scheduling
C. RAID
D. Warm site
Answer: C.
Reason: A redundant array of inexpensive disks (RAID) subsystem is a relatively low-cost solution for fault tolerance for disks. RAID also increases data availability. Load balancing adds in additional servers, which are significantly more expensive than RAID. Round-robin scheduling is one of the methods used in load balancing.
A warm site is a separate location, which can be expensive.
60. Employees access a secure area by entering a cipher code, but this code does not identify individuals. After a recent security incident, management has decided to implement a key card system that will identify individuals who enter and exit this secure area. However, the installation might take six months or longer.
Which of the following choices can the organization install immediately to identify individuals who enter or exit the secure area?
A. Mantrap
B. Access list
C. CCTV
D. Bollards
Answer: C.
Reason: Closed-circuit television (CCTV) or a similar video surveillance system can monitor the entrance and record who enters and exits the area. A mantrap prevents tailgating, but it doesn’t necessarily identify individuals.
An access list is useful if a guard is identifying users and allowing access based on the access list, but the access list does not identify users. Bollards are a type of barricade that protects building entrances.
61. An organization has decided to increase the amount of customer data it maintains and use it for targeted sales. The privacy officer has determined that this data is PII.
Which type of assessment should be completed to ensure the organization is complying with applicable laws and regulations related to this data?
A. Privacy impact assessment
B. Privacy threshold assessment
C. Threat assessment
D. Supply chain assessment
Answer: A.
Reason: A privacy impact assessment attempts to identify potential risks related to Personally Identifiable Information (PII) and ensure the organization is complying with applicable laws and regulations.
A privacy threshold assessment helps an organization identify PII within a system and determine if a privacy impact assessment is needed. A threat assessment is part of a risk assessment and helps identify potential threats. A supply chain assessment is part of a risk assessment and helps identify potential problems in the supply chain that might impact an organization’s mission.
62. A security technician runs an automated script every night designed to detect changes in files. Of the following choices, what are the MOST LIKELY protocols used in this script?
A. PGP and SHA
B. ECC and HMAC
C. AES and Twofish
D. SHA and HMAC
Answer: D.
Reason: Hashing algorithms such as Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA) and Hash-based Message Authentication Code (HMAC) can detect changes in files (or verify the files have not lost integrity).
Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) is a method used to secure email communication. Elliptic curve cryptography (ECC), Advanced Encryption Standard (AES), and Twofish are all encryption algorithms.
63. An application requires users to log on with passwords. The application developers want to store the passwords in such a way that it will thwart rainbow table attacks.
Which of the following is the BEST solution?
A. SHA
B. Blowfish
C. ECC
D. Bcrypt
Answer: D.
Reason: Bcrypt is a key stretching technique designed to protect against brute force and rainbow table attacks and is the best choice of the given answers. Another alternative is Password- Based Key Derivation Function 2 (PBKDF2).
Both salt the password with additional bits. Passwords stored using Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA) are easier to crack because they don’t use salts. Bcrypt is based on Blowfish, but Blowfish itself isn’t commonly used to encrypt passwords. Elliptic curve cryptography (ECC) is efficient and sometimes used with mobile devices, but not to encrypt passwords. 10.
64. Which of the following cryptography concepts indicates that ciphertext is significantly different than plaintext after it has been encrypted?
A. Diffusion
B. Obfuscation
C. Collision
D. Confusion
Answer: D.
Reason: In the context of encryption, confusion means that the ciphertext is significantly different than the plaintext. In cryptography, diffusion ensures that small changes in the plaintext result in large changes in the ciphertext.
Obfuscation techniques attempt to hide data or make something unclear, but they don’t necessarily convert plaintext into ciphertext. A collision refers to a hashing algorithm vulnerability and is unrelated to encryption.
65. Your organization is investigating possible methods of sharing encryption keys over a public network. Which of the following is the BEST choice?
A. CRL
B. PBKDF2
C. Hashing
D. ECDHE
Answer: D.
Reason: Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman Ephemeral (ECDHE) allows entities to negotiate encryption keys securely over a public network and is the best choice of the available answers. A certificate revocation list (CRL) identifies revoked certificates and is unrelated to sharing encryption keys.
Password-Based Key Derivation Function 2 (PBKDF2) is a key stretching technique designed to make password cracking more difficult. Hashing methods do not support sharing encryption keys over a public network.
66. An application developer is working on the cryptographic elements of an application. She needs to implement an encryption algorithm that provides both confidentiality and data authenticity.
Which of the following cipher modes supports these goals?
A. CTM
B. CBC
C. ECB
D. GCM
Answer: D.
Reason: Galois/Counter Mode (GCM) combines the Counter (CTM) mode with hashing techniques to provide both confidentiality and data authenticity. None of the other modes listed provide data authenticity. CTM mode combines an initialization vector (IV) with a counter to encrypt blocks. Cipher Block Chaining (CBC) mode ncrypts the first block with an IV.
It then combines each subsequent block with the previous block using an XOR operation. The Electronic Codebook (ECB) mode of operation should not be used because it encrypts blocks with the same key, making it easier for attackers to crack.
67. An organization hosts several web servers in a web farm used for ecommerce. Due to recent attacks, management is concerned that attackers might try to redirect web site traffic, allowing the attackers to impersonate their e-commerce site.
Which of the following methods will address this issue?
A. Stapling
B. Perfect forward secrecy
C. Pinning
D. Key stretching
Answer: C.
Reason: Public key pinning provides clients with a list of public key hashes that clients can use to detect web site impersonation attempts. Stapling reduces Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) traffic by appending a timestamped, digitally signed OCSP response to a certificate.
Perfect forward secrecy ensures that the compromise of a long-term key does not compromise keys used in the past. Key stretching techniques add additional bits (salts) to passwords, making them harder to crack.
68. Users within an organization frequently access public web servers using HTTPS. Management wants to ensure that users can verify that certificates are valid even if the public CAs are temporarily unavailable.
Which of the following should be implemented to meet this need?
A. OCSP
B. CRL
C. Private CA
D. CSR
Answer: B.
Reason: A certificate revocation list (CRL) can meet this need because CRLs are cached. If the public Certificate Authority (CA) is not reachable due to any type of connection outage or CA outage, the cached CRL can be used as long as the cache time has not expired.
The Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) works in real time where the client queries the CA with the serial number of the certificate. If the CA is unreachable, the certificate cannot be validated. A private CA is used within an organization and cannot validate certificates from a public CA. You request a certificate with a certificate signing request (CSR), but the CSR doesn’t validate an issued certificate.
69. A security auditor discovered that several employees in the Accounting department can print and sign checks. In her final report, she recommended restricting the number of people who can print checks and the number of people who can sign them.
She also recommended that no one should be authorized to print and sign checks. Which security policy does this describe?
A. Discretionary access control
B. Rule-based access control
C. Separation of duties
D. Job rotation
Answer: C.
Reason: This recommendation is enforcing a separation of duties principle, which prevents any single person from performing multiple job functions that might allow the person to commit fraud.
Discretionary access control specifies that every object has an owner, but doesn’t separate duties. Devices such as routers use a rule-based access control model, but it doesn’t separate duties. Job rotation policies rotate employees into different jobs, but they don’t necessarily separate job functions.
70. Your organization includes a software development division within the IT department. One developer writes and maintains applications for the Sales and Marketing departments.
A second developer writes and maintains applications for the Payroll department. Once a year, they have to switch roles for at least a month. What is the purpose of this practice?
A. To enforce a separation of duties policy
B. To enforce a mandatory vacation policy
C. To enforce a job rotation policy
D. To enforce an acceptable use policy
Answer: C.
Reason: This practice enforces a job rotation policy where employees rotate into different jobs, and is designed to reduce potential incidents. A separation of duties policy prevents any single person from performing multiple job functions to help prevent fraud, but it doesn’t force users to switch roles.
A mandatory vacation policy requires employees to take time away from their job. An acceptable use policy informs users of their responsibilities when using an organization’s equipment.
71. Your organization is considering storage of sensitive data with a cloud provider. Your organization wants to ensure the data is encrypted while at rest and while in transit.
Which type of interoperability agreement can your organization use to ensure the data is encrypted while in transit?
A. SLA
B. BPA
C. MOU
D. ISA
Answer: D.
Reason: An interconnection security agreement (ISA) specifies technical and security requirements for secure connections and can ensure data is encrypted while in transit. None of the other agreements address the connection. A service level agreement (SLA) stipulates performance expectations of a vendor.
A business partners agreement (BPA) is a written agreement for business partners. A memorandum of understanding (MOU) expresses an understanding between two parties to work together.
72. You work as a help-desk professional in a large organization. You have begun to receive an extraordinary number of calls from employees related to malware.
Using common incident response procedures, which of the following should be your FIRST response?
A. Preparation
B. Identification
C. Eradication
D. Recovery
Answer: B.
Reason: At this stage, the first response is incident identification. The preparation phase is performed before an incident, and includes steps to prevent incidents. After identifying this as a valid incident (malware infection), the next steps are containment, eradication, recovery, and lessons learned.
73. An incident response team is following typical incident response procedures. Which of the following phases is the BEST choice for analyzing an incident with a goal of identifying steps to prevent a reoccurrence of the incident?
A. Preparation
B. Identification
C. Eradication
D. Lessons learned
Answer: D.
Reason: You should analyze an incident during the lessons learned phase of incident response with the goal of identifying steps to prevent reoccurrence. Preparation is a planning step done before an incident, with the goal of preventing incidents and identifying methods to respond to incidents.
Identification is the first step after hearing about a potential incident to verify it is an incident. Eradication attempts to remove all malicious elements of an incident after it has been contained.
74. You are helping your organization create a security policy for incident response. Which of the following choices is the BEST choice to include when an incident requires confiscation of a physical asset?
A. Ensure hashes are taken first.
B. Ensure witnesses sign an AUP.
C. Maintain the order of volatility.
D. Keep a record of everyone who took possession of the physical asset.
Answer: D.
Reason: It’s important to keep a chain of custody for any confiscated physical items and the chain of custody is a record of everyone who took possession of the asset after it was first confiscated. Hashes should be taken before capturing an image, but they are not required before confiscating equipment.
Users, not witnesses, sign an acceptable use policy (AUP). Security personnel should be aware of the order of volatility, but there isn’t any way to maintain the order.
75. Security personnel confiscated a user’s workstation after a security incident. Administrators removed the hard drive for forensic analysis, but left it unattended for several hours before capturing an image.
Which of the following could prevent the company from taking the employee to court over this incident?
A. Witnesses were not identified.
B. A chain of custody was not maintained.
C. An order of volatility was not maintained.
D. A hard drive analysis was not complete.
Answer: B.
Reason: A chain of custody was not maintained because the hard drive was left unattended for several hours before capturing an image. Witnesses were not mentioned, but are not needed if the chain of custody was maintained.
The order of volatility does not apply here, but the hard drive is not volatile. Analysis would occur after capturing an image, but there isn’t any indication it wasn’t done or wasn’t complete.
In Summary,
Cybersecurity is essential in today’s digital age. Understanding fundamental security concepts like encryption, the difference between viruses and worms, and principles like least privilege helps in safeguarding systems and data.
The MCQs above highlight some of the key areas of security that everyone should be familiar with.
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