CISSP - Questions with Answers
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1. What does the Bell-LaPadula model Not allow ?

  1. Subjects to read from a higer level of security relative to their level of security
  2. Subjects to read from level of security relative to their level of security
  3. Subjects to write to a higher level of security relative to their level of security
  4. Subjects to read at their same level of security

Answer: A

Hint: Tne correct answer is A. The other options are not prohibited by the model.

2. In the *(star) property of the Bell-LaPadula model:

  1. Subjects cannot read from a higher level of security relative to their level of security.
  2. Subjects cannot read from a lower level of security relative to their level of security.
  3. Subjects cannot write to a lower level of security relative to their level of security.
  4. Subjects cannot read from their same level of security.

Answer: C

Hint: The correct answer is C by definition of the property.

3. The Clark-Wilson model focuses on data's:

  1. Integrity
  2. Confidentiality
  3. Availability
  4. Format

Answer: A

Hint: The correct answer is A. The Clark-Wilson model is an integrity model.

4. The * (star) property of the Biba model states that:

  1. Subjects cannot write to a lower level of integrity relative to their level of integrity.
  2. Subjects cannot write to a higher level of integrity relative to their level of integrity.
  3. Subjects cannot read from a lower level of integrity relative to their level of integrity.
  4. Subjects cannot read froma higher level of integrity relative to their level of integrity.

Answer: B

5. Which of the following does the Clark-Wilson model NOT involve ?

  1. Constrained data items
  2. Transformational procedures
  3. Confidentiality items
  4. Well-formed transactions

Answer: C

Hint: The correct answer is C. Answers A, B, and D are parts of the Clark-Wilson model.

6. The Take-Grant model:

  1. Focuses on confidentiality
  2. Specifies the rights that a subject can transfer to an object
  3. Specifies the levels of integrity
  4. Specifies the levels of availability

Answer: B

7. The Biba model addresses:

  1. Data disclosure
  2. Transformation procedures
  3. Constrained data items
  4. Unauthorized modification of data

Answer: D

Hint: The correct answer is D. The Biba model is an integrity model. Answer A is associated with confidentiality. Answers B and C are specific to the Clark-Wilson model.

8. Mandatory access controls first appear in the Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC) at the rating of:

  1. D
  2. C
  3. B
  4. A

Answer: C

9. In the access control matrix, the rows are :

  1. Access Control Lists (ACLs)
  2. Tuples
  3. Domains
  4. Capability lists

Answer: D

Hint: The correct answer is D. Answer A is incorrect because the access control list is not a row in the access control matrix. Answer B is incorrect because a tuple is a row in the table of a relational database. Answer C is incorrect because a domain is the set of allowable values a column or attribute can take in a relational database.

10. What information security model formalizes the U.S. Department of Defense multi-level security policy ?

  1. Clark-Wilson
  2. Stark-Wilson
  3. Biba
  4. Bell-LaPadula

Answer: D

Hint: The correct answer is D. The Bell-LaPadula model addresses the confidentiality of classified material. Answers A and C are integrity models, and answer B is a distracter.

11. Trusted Computing Base (TCB) is defined as:

  1. The total combination of protection mechanisms within a computer system that is trusted to enforce a security policy.
  2. The boundary separating the trusted mechanisms from the remainder of the system.
  3. A trusted path that permits a user to access resources.
  4. A system that employs the necessary hardware and software assurance measures to enable the procesing of multiple levels of classified or sensitve information to occur.

Answer: A

Hint: The correct answer is A. Answer B is the security perimeter. Answer C is the definition of a trusted path. Answer D is the definition of a trusted computer system.

12. Memory space insulated from other running processes in a multi-processing system is part of a:

  1. Protection domain
  2. Security perimeter
  3. Least upper bound
  4. Constrained data item

Answer: A

13. The boundary separting the TCB from the remainder of the system is called the:

  1. Star property
  2. Simple security property
  3. Discretionary control boundary
  4. Security perimeter

Answer: D

Hint: The corrector answer is D. Answers A and B deal with security models, and answer C is a distracter.

14. The system component that enforces access controls on an object is the:

  1. Security perimeter
  2. Trusted domain
  3. Reference mpnitor
  4. Access control matrix

Answer: C

15. Which one the following is NOT one of the three major parts of the Common Criteria (CC)?

  1. Introduction and General Model
  2. Security Evaluation Requirements
  3. Security Functional Requirements
  4. Security Assurance Requirements

Answer: B

Hint: The correct answer is B, a distracter. Answer A is Part 1 of the CC. It defines general concepts and principles of information security and defines the contents of the Protection Profile (PP),Security Target (ST), and the Package. The Security Functional Requirements, answer C, are Part 2 of the CC, which contains a catalog of well-defined standard means of expressing security requirements of IT products and systems. Answer D is Part 3 of the CC and comprises a catalog of a set of standard assurance components.

16. A computer system that employs the necessary hardware and software assurance measures to enable it to process multiple levels of classified or sensitive information is called a:

  1. Closed system
  2. Open system
  3. Trusted system
  4. Sale system

Answer: C

Hint: The correct answer is C, by definition of a trusted system. Answers A and B refer to open, standard information on a product as opposed to a closed or proprietary product. Answer D is distracter.

17. For fault-tolerence to operate, a system must be:

  1. Capable of detecting and correcting the fault
  2. Capable only of detecting the fault
  3. Capable of terminating operations in a safe mode
  4. Capable of a cold start

Answer: A

Hint: The correct answer is A, the two conditions required for a fault-tolerant system. Answer B is a distracter. Answer C is the definition of fail safe, and answer D refers to starting after a system shutdown.

18. Which of the folloeing choices describes the four phases of the National Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (NIACAP)?

  1. Definition, Verification, Validation, and Confirmation
  2. Definition, Verification, Validation, and Post Accreditation
  3. Verification, Validation, Authentication, and Post Accreditation
  4. Definition, Authentication, Verification, and Post Accreditation

Answer: B

19. In the Common Criteria, an implementation-independent statement of security needs for a set of IT security products that could be built is called a:

  1. Security Target (ST)
  2. Package
  3. Protection Profile (PP)
  4. Target of Evaluation (TOE)

Answer: C

Hint: The correct answer is C. Answer A, ST, is a statement of security claims for a particular IT product or system. A Package, answer B, is defined in the CC as "an intermediate combination of security requirement components." A TOE, answer D is "an IT product or system to be evaluated."

20. The termination of selected, non-ritical processing when a hardware or software failure occurs and is detected is referred to as:

  1. Fall sale
  2. Fault tolerant
  3. Fail soft
  4. An exception

Answer: C

21. Which one of the following is NOT a component of a CC Protection Profile ?

  1. Target of Evaluation (TOE) description
  2. Threats against the product that must be addressed
  3. Product-specific security requirements
  4. Security objectives

Answer: C

Hint: The correct answer is C. Product-specific security requirements for the product or system are contained in the Security Target (ST). Additional items in the PP are :
- TOE security environment drscription
- Assumptions about the security aspects of the product's expected use
- Organizational security policies or rules
- Application notes
- Rationale

22. Content-dependent control makes access decisions based on:

  1. The object's data
  2. The object's environment
  3. The object's owner
  4. The object's view

Answer: A

Hint: The correct answer is A. Answer B is context-dependent control. Answers C and D are distracters.

23. The term failover refers to:

  1. Switching to a duplicate, "hot" backup component
  2. Terminating processing in a controlled fashion
  3. Resiliency
  4. A fail-soft system

Answer: A

Hint: The correct answer is A. Failover means switching to a "hot" backup system that maintains duplicate states with the primary system. Answer B refers to fail safe, and answers C and D refer to fail soft.

24. Primary storage is the:

  1. Memory directly addressable by the CPU, which is fpr storage of instructions and data that are associated with the program being executed
  2. Memory, such as magnetic disks, that provides non-volatile storage
  3. Memory used in conjunction with real memory to prsent a CPU with a larger, apparent address space
  4. Memory where information must be obtained by sequentially searching from the beginning of the memory space

Answer: A

Hint: The correct answer is A. Answer B refers to secondary storage. Answer C refers to virtual memory, and answer D refers to sequential memory.

25. In the Common Criteria, a Protection Profile:

  1. Specifies the mandatory protection in the product to be evaluated
  2. Is also known as the Target of Evaluation (TOE)
  3. Is also known as the Orange Book
  4. Specifies the security requirements and protections of the products to be evaluated

Answer: D

Hint: The correct answer is D. Answer A is a distracter. Answer B is the product to be evaluated. Answer C refers to TCSEC.

26. Context-dependent control uses which of the following to make decisions?

  1. Subject or object attributes or environmental characteristics
  2. Data
  3. Formal models
  4. Operating system characteristics

Answer: A

Hint: The correct answer is A. Answer B refers to content-dependent characteristics, and answers C and D are distracters

27. The secure path between a user and the Trusted Compoting Base (TCB) is called:

  1. Trusted distribution
  2. Trusted path
  3. Trusted facility management
  4. The security perimeter

Answer: B

Hint: Answer A, trusted distribution, ensures that valid and secure versions of software have been received correctly. Trusted facility management, answer C is concerned with the proper operation of trusted facilities as well as system administration and configuration. Answer D, the security perimeter, is the boundary that separates the TCB from the remainder of the system. Recall that the TCB is the totality of protection mechanisms within a computer system that are trusted to enforce a security policy.

28. In a ring protection system, where is the security kernel usually located?

  1. Highest ring number
  2. Arbitrarily placed
  3. Lowest ring number
  4. Middle ring number

Answer: C

29. Increasing performance in a computer by overlapping the steps of different instructions is called:

  1. A reduced instruction set computer
  2. A complex instruction set computer
  3. Vector processing
  4. Pipelining

Answer: D

30. Random access memory is:

  1. Non-volatile
  2. Sequentially addressable
  3. Programmed by using fusible links
  4. Volatile

Answer: D

Hint: The correct answer is D. RAM is volatile. The other answers are incorrect because RAM is volatile, randomly accessible, and not programmed by fusible links.

31. In the National Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Orocess (NLACAP), a type accreditation performs which one of the following functions?

  1. Evaluates a major application or general sopport system
  2. Verifie the evolving or modified system's compliance with the infornation agreed on in the System Security Authorization Agreement (SSAA)
  3. Evaluates an application or system that is distributed to a number of different loacations
  4. Evaluates the applications and systems at a specific, self-contained location

Answer: C

Hint: Answer A is the NLACAP system accreditation. Answer B is the Phase 2 or verification phase of the Defense Information Technology. Security Certification and Accreditation Process (DITSCAP). The objective is to use the SSAA to establish an evolving yet binding agreement on the level of security required before the system development begins or changes to a system are made. After accreditation, the SSAA becomes the baseline security configuration document. Answer D is the NLACAP site accreditation.

32. Processes are placed in a ring structure according to:

  1. Least pivilege
  2. Separation of duty
  3. Owner classification
  4. First in, first out

Answer: A

Hint: The correct answer is A. A process is placed in the ring that gives it the minimum privileges necessary to perform its functions.

33. The MULTICS opertaing dydtem is a classic example of:

  1. An open system
  2. Object orientation
  3. Database security
  4. Ring protection system

Answer: D

Hint: The correct answer is D. Multics is based on the ring protection architecture.

34. What are hardware, fireware, and software elements of a Trusted Computing Base (TCB) that implement the reference monitor concept called?

  1. The trusted path
  2. A security kernel
  3. An Operating System (OS)
  4. A trusted computing system

Answer: B

Hint: The correct answer is B.

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Contents/Index
  1. Chapter 1 (30 Questions)
  2. Chapter 2 (30 Questions)
  3. Chapter 3 (46 Questions)
  4. Chapter 4 (35 Questions)
  5. Chapter 5 (34 Questions)
  6. Chapter 6 (30 Questions)
  7. Chapter 7 (30 Questions)
  8. Chapter 8 (32 Questions)
  9. Chapter 9 (30 Questions)
  10. Chapter 10 (30 Questions)
  11. Chapter 11 (30 Questions)
  12. Chapter 12 (30 Questions)
  13. Chapter 13 (30 Questions)
  14. Chapter 14 (30 Questions)
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