The field of network and Internet security consists of measures to deter, prevent, detect, and correct security violations that involve the transmission of information. That is a broad statement that covers a host of possibilities.
Also Read: 250 Short Questions on Cryptography and Network Security
To assess effectively the security needs of an organization and to evaluate and choose various security products and policies, the manager responsible for security needs some systematic way of defining the requirements for security and characterizing the approaches to satisfying those requirements.
This is difficult enough in a centralized data processing environment; with the use of local and wide area networks, the problems are compounded.
1. A __________ is anything that can cause harm.
(a) Vulnerability
(b) Phish
(c) Threat
(d) Spoof
Answer – (c)
2. In the right setting, a thief will steal your information by simply watching what you type.
(a) Snagging
(b) Spying
(c) Social engineering
(d) Shoulder surfing
Answer – (d)
3. A __________ is a small program embedded inside of a GIF image.
(a) Web bug
(b) Cookie
(c) Spyware application
(d) Spam
Answer – (a)
4. A hacker contacts you by phone or e-mail and attempts to acquire your password.
(a) Spoofing
(b) Phishing
(c) Spamming
(d) Bugging
Answer – (b)
5. This power protection device includes a battery that provides a few minutes of power.
(a) Surge suppressor
(b) Line conditioner
(c) Generator
(d) UPS
Answer – (d)
6. The phrase __________ describes viruses, worms, Trojan horse attack applets, and attack scripts.
(a) Malware
(b) Spam
(c) Phish
(d) Virus
Answer – (a)
7. A hacker that changes or forges information in an electronic resource is engaging in __________.
(a) Denial of service
(b) Sniffing
(c) Terrorism
(d) Data diddling
Answer – (d)
8. Hackers often gain entry to a network by pretending to be at a legitimate computer.
(a) Spoofing
(b) Forging
(c) IP spoofing
(d) ID theft
Answer – (c)
9. The __________ of a threat measures its potential impact on a system.
(a) Vulnerabilities
(b) Countermeasures
(c) Degree of harm
(d) Susceptibility
Answer – (c)
10. The power level drops below 120V.
(a) Brownout
(b) Spike
(c) Blackout
(d) Surge
Answer – (b)
11. In computer security, __________ means that computer system assets can be modified is only authorized parities.
(a) Confidentiality
(b) Integrity
(c) Availability
(d) Authenticity
Answer – (b)
12. In computer security, _____________ means that the information in a computer system is only accessible for reading by authorized parities.
(a) Confidentiality
(b) Integrity
(c) Availability
(d) Authenticity
Answer – (a)
13. The types of threats on the security of a computer system or network are:
(i) Interruption
(ii) Interception
(iii) Modification
(iv) Creation
(v) Fabrication
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv) only
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv), and (v) only
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), and (v) only
(d) All (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), and (v)
Answer – (c)
14. This is the hiding of a secret message within an ordinary message and the extraction of it at its destination.
(a) Secret key algorithm
(b) Message Queuing
(c) Spyware
(d) Steganography
Answer – (d)
15. Considering commerce and marketing, which of the following present the most significant obstacle to developing IT security?
(a) There is no direct return on investment in building security systems.
(b) Security systems are detrimental to usability and can make IT systems less functional, and therefore less attractive to the consumer.
(c) There is pressure to reduce the time it takes to get a new IT product or system onto the market, so security systems are sacrificed in order to reduce the time to market.
(d) All of the above.
Answer – (d)
16. Threats to IT systems can be classified in many ways; in this chapter three different threat categories are listed. According to this classification, which of the following would be classified as a “failure”?
(a) Security systems were not adequate to protect the system against attack from a hacking group, and sensitive data was lost.
(b) There is a programming error in the software which causes the system to perform badly.
(c) The IT system has failed due to a random unexpected event, such as a tsunami which destroys key electronic equipment.
(d) All of the above.
Answer – B
Answer – (b)
17. In cryptography, what is a cipher?
(a) Algorithm for performing encryption and decryption
(b) Encrypted message
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer – (a)
18. In asymmetric key cryptography, the private key is kept by:
(a) Sender
(b) Receiver
(c) Sender and receiver
(d) All the connected devices to the network
Answer – (b)
19. Cryptanalysis is used:
(a) To find some insecurity in a cryptographic scheme
(b) To increase the speed
(c) To encrypt the data
(d) None of the above
Answer – (a)
20. The encrypted messages are called:
(a) Plaintext
(b) Clear text
(c) Cipher text
(d) Encryption text
Answer – (b)
21. A substitution cipher performs the following:
(a) Characters are replaced by other characters
(b) Rows are replaced by columns
(c) Columns are replaced by rows
(d) None of the above
Answer – (a)
22. A combination of an encryption algorithm and a decryption algorithm is called a:
(a) Cipher
(b) Secret
(c) Key
(d) None of the above
Answer – (b)
23. In a (n) ___________ cipher, the same key is used by both the sender and receiver.
(a) Symmetric key
(b) Asymmetric key
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer – (b)
24. In a (n) _____________ cipher, the key is called the secret key.
(a) Symmetric key
(b) Asymmetric key
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer – (a)
25. In the link encryption method each vulnerable communication link is equipped on both ends with a (n):
(a) Encryption device
(b) Communication link
(c) User terminal
(d) Packet switched network
Answer – (b)
26. The __________ of a threat measures its potential impact on a system.
(a) Vulnerabilities
(b) Countermeasures
(c) Degree of harm
(d) Susceptibility
Answer – (c)
27. What is the most significant difference between a symmetric and an asymmetric cryptosystem?
(a) The key distribution
(b) The mode of operation
(c) The strength against attacks
(d) None of the above
Answer – (a)
28. The method of hiding the secret is:
(a) Cryptography
(b) Steganography
(c) Stenography
(d) Cryptanalysis
Answer – (a)
29. The result of -7 mod 12 is:
(a) –7
(b) 12
(c) 5
(d) –5
Answer – (c)
30. The art of breaking the code is:
(a) Cryptosystem
(b) Steganography
(c) Cryptography
(d) Cryptanalysis
Answer – (d)
31. Which of the following is true regarding a Caesar cipher having key = 3?
(a) It uses an offset value of 3 for sliding alphabets
(b) There is a difference of 3 between the alphabets when the sliding action occurs
(c) It uses 3 keys for encryption
(d) None of the above
Answer – (a)
32. Which of the following is an advantage of using conventional encryption?
(a) It is the most secure
(b) It is very fast
(c) It is economical
(d) None of the above
Answer – (b)
33. One-time pad is also known as:
(a) Perfect secrecy
(b) Perfect hiding
(c) Perfect writing
(d) None of the above
Answer – (a)
34. In cryptography the order of the letters in a message is rearranged by:
(a) Transposition cipher
(b) Substitution cipher
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer – (c)
35. Which is the principle of encryption using a key?
(a) The key indicates which function is used for encryption. Thereby it is more difficult to decrypt an intercepted message as the function is unknown.
(b) The key contains the secret function for encryption including parameters. Only a password can activate the key.
(c) All functions are public; only the key is secret. It contains the parameters used for the encryption and decryption.
(d) The key prevents the user from having to reinstall the software at each change in technology or in the functions for encryption.
Answer – (c)
36. In cryptography what is the cipher?
(a) Algorithm for performing encryption and decryption
(b) Encrypted message
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer – (b)
37. Which is the important disadvantage of symmetric key encryption?
(a) More complex and therefore more time consuming calculation.
(b) Problem of the secure transmission of the secret key.
(c) Less secure encryption function.
(d) Practically not viable.
Answer – (b)
38. What is the Data Encryption Standard?
(a) Block cipher
(b) Stream cipher
(c) Bit cipher
(d) None of the above
Answer – (a)
39. The cipher which reorders the plaintext characters to generate cipher text is:
(a) Transposition cipher
(b) Substitution cipher
(c) (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer – (a)
40. _______ is a keyless transposition cipher with n inputs and m outputs that uses a table to define the relationship between the input stream and output stream.
(a) D-box
(b) S-box
(c) P-box
(d) All the above
Answer – (b)
41. What is the block cipher structure in DES?
(a) Feistel
(b) Elgamal
(c) Shannon
(d) One way permutation
Answer – (a)
42. Which of the following security properties does an S-box provide?
(a) Diffusion
(b) Integrity
(c) Malleability
(d) Confusion
Answer – (d)
43. A P-box has the _______ security feature.
(a) Integrity
(b) Diffusion
(c) Malleability
(d) Confusion
Answer – (b)
44. The text generated in the intermediate stages of a product cipher is:
(a) Cipher text
(b) Plaintext
(c) Middle text
(d) None of the above
Answer – (c)
45. ________ is the best example of a non-Feistel cipher.
(a) AES
(b) HMAC
(c) MAC
(d) DES
Answer – (a)
46. In a full size key transposition cipher with n-bit input, the output can be modeled with a set of ______ possible keys in the permutation.
(a) n!
(b) 2n !
(c) (n – 1)!
(d) None of the above
Answer – (a)
47. A message bit has 512 characters. How many padding bits must be added to it? The message is encoded by 8 bit ASCII and the block cipher accepts a block length 56 bits.
(a) 72
(b) 56
(c) 48
(d) 64
Answer – (c)
48. The encryption algorithm having a 48 bit round key is called:
(a) DES
(b) AES
(c) IDEA
(d) Blowfish
Answer – (a)
49. The number of keys used in each round of IDEA is:
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Answer – (b)
50. Triple DES was first proposed by:
(a) Tuchman
(b) Rivest
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer – (a)
51. What is the original key length in DES?
(a) 64 bit
(b) 128 bit
(c) 72 bit
(d) 56 bit
Answer – (d)
52. ______ is a block cipher.
(a) DES
(b) IDEA
(c) AES
(d) RSA
Answer – (a)
53. The Data Encryption Standard is also called:
(a) Data Encryption Algorithm
(b) Double DES
(c) AES
(d) RSA
Answer – (a)
54. Which one of the following modes of operation in DES is used for operating short data?
(a) Cipher Feedback Mode (CFB)
(b) Cipher Block Chaining (CBC)
(c) Electronic Code Book (ECB)
(d) Output Feedback Modes (OFB)
Answer – (c)
55. ____________is the first step in DES.
(a) Key transformation
(b) Expansion permutation
(c) S-box substitution
(d) P-box substitution
Answer – (d)
56. __________ substitution is a process that accepts 48 bits from the XOR operation.
(a) S-box
(b) P-box
(c) Expansion permutation
(d) Key transformation
Answer – (c)
57. Which of the following is the best-known example of a symmetric key cipher system?
(a) RSA
(b) DES
(c) MD5
(d) All the above
Answer – (b)
58. The AES technique uses the _______ algorithm.
(a) Blowfish
(b) Twofish
(c) Rijndael
(d) Kryptotel
Answer – (c)
59. AES is an example of the _______ encryption technique
(a) Symmetric
(b) Asymmetric
(c) Public key
(d). Elliptical curve
Answer – (a)
60. If the key size is 192 in AES, what would the number of rounds be?
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 15
(d) 14
Answer – (b)
61. The key length used for encryption with 10 rounds of processing is:
(a) 256 bits
(b) 128 bits
(c) 64 bits
(d) 32 bits
Answer – (b)
62. In the NIST competition for AES there were _______ finalist ciphers.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer – (d)
63. The name of the cipher that was chosen to be AES is:
(a) Twofish
(b) Lucifer
(c) MARS
(d) Rijndael
Answer – (d)
64. The Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) has three different configurations with respect to number of rounds and:
(a) Data Size
(b) Round Size
(c) Key Size
(d) Encryption Size
(e) None
Answer – (c)
65. The 4 × 4 byte matrix in the AES algorithm is called:
(a) Words
(b) States
(c) Transactions
(d) Permutations
Answer – (b)
66. In AES the 4 × 4 matrix is transformed into a key of size:
(a) 32 words
(b) 44 words
(c) 54 words
(d) 64 words
Answer – (b)
67. In an AES algorithm, there are _____ similar rounds and ____ rounds are different.
(a) No, all
(b) 10, No
(c) 9, the last
(d) 8, the first and last
Answer – (c)
68. What is the expanded key size of AES-192?
(a) 36 words
(b) 44 words
(c) 52 words
(d) 60 words
Answer – (c)
69. An asymmetric key is also called:
(a) Secret key
(b) Public key
(c) Private Key
(d) None of the above
Answer – (b)
70. RSA stands for:
(a) Rivest Shamir and Adleman
(b) Rock Shane and Amozen
(c) Rivest Shane and Amozen
(d) Rock Shamir and Adleman
Answer – (a)
71. The RSA algorithm uses a variable sized key that is usually between____ and______ bits.
(a) 256, 1028
(b) 256, 2048
(c) 512, 1024
(d) 512, 2048
Answer – (c)
72. If an efficient algorithm for factoring large numbers is discovered, which of the following schemes will be known to be not secure?
(a) Diffie-Hellman
(b) RSA
(c) AES
(d) None of the above
Answer – (b)
73. The symmetric (shared) key in the Diffie-Hellman protocol is:
(a) K = gxy and p
(b) K = gxy mod q
(c) K = (R2)x
(d) All of the above
Answer – (a)
74. The performance of the RSA cryptosystem depends on:
(a) Size of the key
(b) Cipher text
(c) Sender and Receiver System
(d) Algorithm
Answer – (a)
75. In RSA p and q are the two prime numbers, _______ is the public key and _____ is the private key.
(a) p × q; M
(b) M; p × q
(c) p; q
(d) M; p
Answer – (b)
76. ECC is a _____________ type of cryptographic algorithm.
(a) Private key
(b) Symmetric key
(c) Asymmetric key
(d) Session key
Answer – (b)
77. If the straight line is tangential to the elliptic curve at P, R =
(a) P2
(b) –P
(c) P
(d) 2P
Answer – (d)
78. In an ECC it is possible to use ______ primes, or a ______ finite field with an elliptic curve to achieve same degree of security.
(a) smaller; smaller
(b) larger; smaller
(c) smaller; larger
(d) larger; larger
Answer – (a)
79. Message authentication is a service beyond:
(a) Message Confidentiality
(b) Message Integrity
(c) Message Splashing
(d) Message Sending
Answer – (b)
80. This technology is used to measure and analyze human body characteristics for authentication purposes.
(a) Footprinting
(b) Biometrics
(c) Anthropomorphism
(d) Optical character recognition
Answer – (b)
81. This enables users of a basically unsecure public network such as the Internet to securely and privately exchange data and money through the use of a public and a private cryptographic key pair that is obtained and shared through a trusted authority.
(a) Security Identifier (SID)
(b) Public Infrastructure (PKI)
(c) Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)
(d) Trusted Computing Platform Alliance (TCPA)
Answer – (b)
82. A digital signature needs a:
(a) Public key system
(b) Private key system
(c) Public and private key system
(d) None of the above
Answer – (c)
83. Network security ensures:
(a) Detecting attacks
(b) Recovering attacks
(c) Preventing attacks
(d) All of the above
Answer – (d)
84. Hacking refers to:
(a) Data access without permission
(b) Data updating without permission
(c) Data deletion without permission
(d) All of the above
Answer – (d)
85. Encryption protects against:
(a) Attacks
(b) Manipulation of data
(c) Viruses
(d) All of the above
Answer – (a)
86. A hash function is used to produce:
(a) Fingerprint of a file
(b) Useful for message authentication
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above
Answer – (a)
87. Decryption algorithm:
(a) Encrypts input data
(b) Decrypts the encrypted data
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above
Answer – (b)
88. The codified language can be termed as:
(a) Cleartext
(b) Codetext
(c) Unclear text
(d) Ciphertext
Answer – (d)
89. An attack on a ciphertext message where the attacker attempts to use all possible permutations and combinations is called:
(a) Brute-plaintext attack
(b) Known-plaintext attack
(c) Birthday attack
(d) Chosen-plaintext attack
Answer – (a)
90. Hash collision means:
(a) Two keys for one message
(b) One key for two messages
(c) Two different keys for different messages
(d) Always the same key
Answer – (a)
91. Encryption strength is based on:
(a) Strength of algorithm
(b) Secrecy of key
(c) Length of key
(d) All of the above
Answer – (d)
92. Which of the following are used to generate a message digest by the network security protocols?
(i) RSA (ii) SHA-1 (iii) DES (iv) MD5
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
Answer – (c)
93. A digital signature needs a:
(a) Public key system
(b) Private key system
(c) Public and private key system
(d) None of the above
Answer – (c)
94. The secure hash function or algorithm was developed by:
(a) NIST
(b) ANSI
(c) IEEE
(d) None of the above
Answer – (a)
95. A hash function is:
(a) Used to produce a Fingerprint of a file
(b) Useful for message authentication
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer – (c)
96. Hash collision means:
(a) Two keys for one message
(b) One key for two message
(c) Two different keys for different messages
(d) Always the same key
Answer – (a)
97. SHA-1 is similar to:
(a) RSA
(b) DES
(c) MD5
(d) Rijndael
Answer – (c)
98. What are MD4 and MD5?
(a) Symmetric Encryption Algorithms
(b) Asymmetric Encryption Algorithms
(c) Hashing Algorithms
(d) Digital Certificates
Answer – (c)
99. Design of modern hash function uses
(a) Merkle-Damgård construction
(b) Feistel Cipher
(c) XOR
(d) D-Boxes
Answer – (a)
100. The number of rounds in MD5 is
(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 16
Answer – (b)
101. The block size of SHA-512 is
(a) 256
(b) 1024
(c) 512
(d) 128
Answer – (b)
102. What is an advantage of RSA over DSS?
(a) It can provide digital signature and encryption functionality
(b) It uses fewer resources and encrypts quicker because it uses symmetric keys
(c) It is a block cipher versus a stream cipher
(d) It employs a one-time encryption pad
Answer – (a)
103. When public key cryptography is used to calculate a digital signature, the sender encrypts the ________ of the document with his or her own private key.
(a) Key
(b) digital fingerprint
(c) Ciphertext
(d) None of the above
Answer – (b)
104. When two messages hash to the same message digest it is called
(a) collision
(b) attack
(c) intrusion
(d) none of the above
Answer – (a)
105. A digital signature is basically a way to ensure that an electronic document is
(a) secure
(b) authentic
(c) verified
(d) none of the above
Answer – (b)
106. To increase the speed of encryption of the best solution is to consider a public and ________ key in order to get both the security advantages.
(a) secret key
(b) private key
(c) session key
(d) none of the above
Answer – (b)
107. DSS uses the ________ hash function for the signature generation process.
(a) Secure Hash Standard
(b) MD5
(c) SHA-1
(d) SSL
Answer – (a)
108. A digital signature needs a
(a) Public key system
(b) Private key system
(c) Public and private key system
(d) none
Answer – (c)
109. A Digital envelope is a secure electronic data container that is used to protect messages through ________ and data ________.
(a) Encryption; Authentication
(b) Encryption; Integrity
(c) Authentication; Integrity
(d) Authentication; Non-repudiation
Answer – (a)
110. Hash collision means:
(a) Two keys for one message
(b) One key for two messages
(c) Two different keys for different messages
(d) Always the same key
Answer – (a)
111. In the digital signature technique, the sender of the message uses ________ to create ciphertext:
(a) Own symmetric key
(b) Own private key
(c) The receiver’s private key
(d) The receiver’s public key
Answer – (a)
112. _________ uses a file containing words phrases, common passwords, and other strings that are likely to be used as a password.
(a) Dictionary attack
(b) Key log attack
(c) Password sniffing
(d) None
Answer – (a)
113. A _________ ties every possible combination of characters up to a given length.
(a) password sniffing
(b) brute force attack
(c) secure socket shell
(d) VPN
Answer – (b)
114. _________ is used as a countermeasure for password sniffing.
(a) SSH
(b) RC4
(c) OTP
(d) VPN
Answer – (c)
115. If two users have the same password, they will have ____ password hash.
(a) a different
(b) no
(c) the same
(d) none of the above
Answer – (c)
116. A method of randomizing the hashes by appending or prepending a random string is called _________.
(a) salt
(b) hashing
(c) encryption
(d) none of the above
Answer – (a)
117. High performance computing systems and custom hardware can compute billions of hashes per second, so these attacks are still very effective. To make these attacks less efficient, we can use a technique known as _________.
(a) salt
(b) key stretching
(c) dictionary attack
(d) all of the above
Answer – (c)
118. The _________ protocols are developed to secure against passive eavesdropping.
(a) brute force attack
(b) dictionary attack
(c) challenge-response
(d) all of the above
Answer – (a)
119. What is biometrics?
(a) The automated system uses behavioral and physiological characteristics to determine or verify an identity.
(b) It recognizes individuals based on their inherent physical or behavioral characteristics.
(c) (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.
Answer – (c)
120. What does a biometrics system find based on user identity?
(a) What you possess such as identity (ID Card)
(b) Or what you remember, such as a password.
(c) All of above
Answer – (a)
121. What are the biometric functionalities?
(a) Identification
(b) Verification
(c) (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer – (a)
122. What are the necessary biometric attributes or factors?
(a) Universality and Uniqueness
(b) Permanence, Collectability, and Acceptability
(c) (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer – (c)
123. ______ is a well-known public key certificate process.
(a) SHA 1
(b) X.509
(c) SSL
(d) LDAP
Answer – (b)
124. For symmetric key cryptography the trusted intermediary is:
(a) Certificate Authority
(b) Key Distribution Center
(c) Pluggable Authentication Module
(d) None of the above
Answer – (b)
125. The trusted anchor for the digital certificate is:
(a) certificate Authority
(b) authentication Server
(c) root Certificate Authority
(d) all of the above
Answer – (c)
126. _____ provides a certificate to the user.
(a) Issuing CA
(b) Intermediate CA
(c) Root Certificate Authority
(d) None of the above
Answer – (a)
127. In Kerberos, ______ verifies the client during login.
(a) ticket Granting Server
(b) certificate Authority
(c) authentication Server
(c) none of the above
Answer – (c)
128. For each _______ the Kerberos Key Distribution Center (KDC) maintains a database of the realm’s principal and the principal’s associated “secret keys.”
(a) key
(b) realm
(c) document
(d) none of the above
Answer – (b)
129. For a client-server authentication, the client requests from the KDC a ________ for access to a specific asset.
(a) ticket
(b) local
(c) token
(d) user
Answer – (a)
130. A special ticket which contains the session key for communication between the client machine and the KDC server is:
(a) AS
(b) TGS
(c) TGT
(d) none of the above
Answer – (c)
131. Which of the following factors must be considered when implementing Kerberos authentication?
(a) Kerberos can be susceptible to the ticket issued for authentication by the KDC for anyone other than the proper user having access to any one of the hosts.
(b) Kerberos tickets can be spoofed using replay attacks to network resources.
(c) Kerberos requires a centrally managed database of all user and resource passwords.
(d) Kerberos uses clear text passwords.
Answer – (a)
132. Which of the following must be deployed for Kerberos to function correctly?
(a) Dynamic IP (Internet Protocol) routing protocols for routers and servers.
(b) Separate network segments for the realms.
(c) Token authentication devices.
(d) Time synchronization services for clients and servers.
Answer – (c)
133. In the right setting a thief will steal your information by simply watching what you type.
(a) Snagging
(b) Spying
(c) Social engineering
(d) Shoulder surfing
Answer – (d)
134. A __________ is a small program embedded inside of a GIF image.
(a) Web bug
(b) cookie
(c) spyware application
(d) spam
Answer – (a)
135. A hacker contacts you by phone or e-mail and attempts to acquire your password.
(a) Spoofing
(b) Phishing
(c) Spamming
(d) Bugging
Answer – (b)
136. This power protection device includes a battery that provides a few minutes of power.
(a) Surge suppressor
(b) Line conditioner
(c) Generator
(d) UPS
Answer – (d)
137. The phrase __________ describes viruses, worms, Trojan horse attack applets, and attack scripts.
(a) malware
(b) spam
(c) phish
(d) virus
Answer – (a)
138. A hacker that changes or forges information in an electronic resource is engaging in:
(a) denial of service
(b) sniffing
(c) terrorism
(d) data diddling
Answer – (d)
139. An attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users is called:
(a) denial-of-service attack
(b) virus attack
(c) worms attack
(d) botnet process
Answer – (a)
140. The extensible authentication protocol is an authentication framework frequently used in
(a) wired personal area network
(b) wireless networks
(c) wired local area network
(d) none of the above
Answer – (b)
141. The ________ is code that recognizes some special sequence of input or is triggered by being run from a certain user ID by an unlikely sequence of events.
(a) trap doors
(b) Trojan horse
(c) logic bomb
(d) virus
Answer – (a)
142. The ________ is code embedded in some legitimate program that is set to “explode” when certain conditions are met.
(a) trap doors
(b) trojan horse
(c) logic bomb
(d) virus
Answer – (c)
143. Which of the following malicious programs does not replicate automatically?
(a) Trojan Horse
(b) Virus
(c) Worm
(d) Zombie
Answer – (a)
144. _________ programs can be used to accomplish functions indirectly that an unauthorized user could not accomplish directly.
(a) Zombie
(b) Worm
(c) Trojan Horses
(d) Logic Bomb
Answer – (c)
145. State whether true of false.
(i) A worm mails a copy of itself to other systems.
(ii) A worm executes a copy of itself on another system.
(a) True, False
(b) False, True
(c) True, True
(d) False, False
Answer – (a)
146. A ________ is a program that can infect other programs by modifying them; the modification includes a copy of the virus program, which can go on to infect other programs.
(a) worm
(b) virus
(c) zombie
(d) trap doors
Answer – (b)
147. This is a series of messages sent by someone attempting to break into a computer to learn which computer network services the computer provides.
(a) Bit robbing
(b) Web services description language (WSDL)
(c) Port Scan
(d) Service Profile Identification
Answer – (c)
148. Which of the following is an independent malicious program that need not have any host program?
(a) Trap doors
(b) Trojan horse
(c) Virus
(d) Worm
Answer – (d)
149. What is malware?
(a) A virus or worm
(b) A Trojan horse
(c) A hacker tool
(d) A corrupted program
Answer – (c)
150. Which of the following is a type of program that either pretends to have, or is described as having, a set of useful or desirable features, but actually contains damaging code.
(a) Trojans
(b) Viruses
(c) Worms
(d) Adware
(e) Bots
Answer – (a)
151. Which of the following is the type of software that has self-replicating software that causes damage to files and systems?
(a) Viruses
(b) Trojan horses
(c) Bots
(d) Worms
Answer – (d)
152. Which of the following is a program capable of continually replicating with little or no user intervention?
(a) Virus
(b) Trojan horses
(c) Rootkit
(d) Worms
Answer – (a)
153. Which of the following is a software that, once installed on your computer, tracks your Internet browsing habits and sends you popups containing advertisements related to the sites and topics you’ve visited?
(a) Backdoors
(b) Adware
(c) Malware
(d) Bots
Answer – (b)
154. What is the software called that’s designed to exploit a computer user and is a broad term covering computer viruses, worms, Trojans, adware, etc.?
(a) Backdoors
(b) Key-logger
(c) Malware
(d) Spyware
Answer – (c)
155. What is the software called which when it gets downloaded on a computer scans your hard drive for personal information and your Internet browsing habits?
(a) Key-logger
(b) Malware
(c) Antiware
(d) Spyware
Answer – (d)
156. _________ are computer programs that are designed by attackers to gain root or administrative access to your computer.
(a) Backdoors
(b) Rootkits
(c) Malware
(d) Antiware
Answer – (b)
157. The attack that focuses on capturing small packets from the network transmitted by other computers and reading the data content in search of any type of information is:
(a) phishing
(b) eavesdropping
(c) scams
(d) exploits
Answer – (b)
158. _________ is the action of recording the keys struck on a keyboard, typically covertly, so that the person using the keyboard is unaware that their actions are being monitored.
(a) Denial of service
(b) Exploits
(c) Scams
(d) Keylogging
Answer – (d)
159. _________ is the part of malware such as worms or viruses which performs the malicious action: deleting data, sending spam, or encrypting data.
(a) Denial of service
(b) Exploits
(c) Scams
(d) Payload
Answer – (d)
160. Which of the following is a class of computer threat?
(a) Phishing
(b) Soliciting
(c) DoS attacks
(d) Stalking
Answer – (c)
161. Which of the following is not an external threat to a computer or computer network?
(a) Ignorance
(b) Trojan horses
(c) Adware
(d) Crackers
Answer – (a)
162. Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in:
(a) browser security
(b) E-mail security
(c) FTP security
(d) none of the above
Answer – (b)
163. PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher called:
(a) international data encryption algorithm
(b) private data encryption algorithm
(c) internet data encryption algorithm
(d) none of the above
Answer – (a)
164. The protocol used to provide security to e-mails is:
(a) POP
(b) PGP
(c) SNMP
(d) HTTP
Answer – (b)
165. PGP uses ______ security systems.
(a) private key cryptosystem
(b) public key cryptosystem
(c) public and private key cryptosystem
(d) only session key
Answer – (b)
166. PGP offers ______ block ciphers for message encryption.
(a) 3DES
(b) CAST
(c) IDEA
(d) all of these
Answer – (d)
167. The key size allowed in PGP is ______ bits.
(a) 1024-1056
(b) 1024-4056
(c) 1024-4096
(d) 1024-2048
Answer – (c)
168. The cryptographic algorithms used in s-MIME are:
(a) IDEA
(b) RSA, DES-3
(c) RC4
(d) RC5
Answer – (b)
169. Which algorithms for digital signatures are used in s-MIME?
(a) DSS and RSA
(b) ECC and RSA
(c) ECC and RSA
(d) ECC and Diffie-Hellman
Answer – (a)
170. PGP uses the following public key algorithm:
(a) DSS or RSA
(b) RSA or ECC
(c) DSS or ECC
(d) DSS or Diffie-Hellman
Answer – (a)
171. PGP key management relies on:
(a) X.509 certificate
(b) Kerberos Server
(c) OSI reference model
(d) Web of trustw
Answer – (a)
172. In the ______ mode, IPSec protects information delivered from the transport layer to the network layer.
(a) transport
(b) tunnel
(c) (a) or (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Answer – (c)
173. The ______ mode is normally used when we need host-to-host (end-toend) protection of data.
(a) transport
(b) tunnel
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Answer – (a)
174. ______ operates in the transport mode or the tunnel mode.
(a) IPSec
(b) SSL
(c) PGP
(d) none of the above
Answer – (a)
175. ______ is a collection of protocols designed by the IETF (Internet Engineering Task Force) to provide security for a packet at the network layer.
(a) IPSec
(b) SSL
(c) PGP
(d) none of the above
Answer – (a)
176. IPSec defines two protocols: ______ and ______.
(a) AH; SSL
(b) PGP; ESP
(c) AH; ESP
(d) none of the above
Answer – (c)
177. ______ Provides authentication at IP level.
(a) AH
(b) ESP
(c) PGP
(d) SSL
Answer – (a)
178. ______ provides authentication for packets at the IP.
(a) AH
(b) ESP
(c) PGP
(d) SSL
Answer – (a)
179. The transport layer aggregates data from different applications into a single stream before passing it to the:
(a) network layer
(b) data link layer
(c) application layer
(d) physical layer
Answer – (a)
180. Which one of the following is a transport layer protocol used in networking?
(a) TCP
(b) UDP
(c) Both TCP and UDP
(d) None of the above
Answer – (c)
181. User datagram protocol is called connectionless because:
(a) all UDP packets are treated independently by the transport layer
(b) it sends data as a stream of related packets
(c) it is received in the same order as the sent order
(d) none of the above
Answer – (a)
182. Transmission control protocol:
(a) is a connection oriented protocol
(b) uses a three-way handshake to establish a connection
(c) receives data from an application as a single stream
(d) all of the above
Answer – (d)
183. An endpoint of an inter-process communication flow across a computer network is called
(a) socket
(b) pipe
(c) port
(d) none of the above
Answer – (a)
184. A socket-style API for windows is called
(a) wsock
(b) winsock
(c) win
(d) none of the above
Answer – (b)
185. Which one of the following is a version of UDP with congestion control?
(a) Datagram congestion control protocol
(b) Stream control transmission protocol
(c) Structured stream transport
(d) None of the above
Answer – (a)
186. A ______ is a TCP name for a transport service access point.
(a) port
(b) pipe
(c) node
(d) none of the above
Answer – (a)
187. Transport layer protocols deals with
(a) application to application communication
(b) process to process communication
(c) node to node communication
(d) none of the above
Answer – (b)
188. Which one of the following is a transport layer protocol?
(a) Stream control transmission protocol
(b) Internet control message protocol
(c) Neighbor discovery protocol
(d) Dynamic host configuration protocol
Answer – (a)
189. IPSec is designed to provide security at the:
(a) transport layer
(b) network layer
(c) application layer
(d) session layer
Answer – (b)
190. In tunnel mode, IPsec protects the:
(a) entire IP packet
(b) IP header
(c) IP payload
(d) none of the above
Answer – (a)
191. A network layer firewall works as a:
(a) frame filter
(b) packet filter
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Answer – (b)
192. The Encrypted Security payload extension header is new in:
(a) IPv4
(b) IPv5
(c) IPv6
(d) IP
Answer – (c)
193. Performance, reliability, and security are criteria of an:
(a) efficient network
(b) intranet
(c) ethernet
(d) none of the above
Answer – (a)
194. The network layer is concerned with:
(a) bits
(b) frames
(c) packets
(d) none of the above
Answer – (c)
195. Which one of the following is not a function of the network layer?
(a) Routing
(b) Error control
(c) Congestion control
(d) None of the above
Answer – (a)
196. AH provides the _____ services for IPSec.
(a) authentication
(b) confidentiality
(c) integrity
(d) all the above
Answer – (a)
197. ESP provides ______ and _____ for IPSec.
(a) confidentiality; integrity
(b) confidentiality; authentication
(c) integrity; authentication
(d) none of the above
Answer – (b)
198. A new IP header is added in ______ mode.
(a) transport mode
(b) tunnel mode
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none
Answer – (a)
199. The _______ is a default key management protocol used for IPSec.
(a) key Distribution Center
(b) AH
(c) internet Key Exchange (IKE)
(d) none of the above
Answer – (c)
200. MAC flooding is the method of attacking the network _________:
(a) router
(b) switch
(c) hub
(d) gateway
Answer – (b)
201. The _________ allows someone to receive packets that were originally directed to another computer.
(a) port stealing
(b) session hijacking
(c) DHCP attack
(d) none of the above
Answer – (a)
202. _________ and _________ are the possible attacks on a DHCP Server:
(a) ARP poisoning; MAC flooding
(b) port stealing; MAC flooding
(c) DHCP spoofing; DHCP starvation
(d) none of the above
Answer – (c)
203. _________ is also referred to as a CAM table.
(a) routing table
(b) MAC address table
(c) IP-MAC mapping table
(d) none of the above
Answer – (b)
204. The VLAN information may be carried between switches in the LAN using a _________ port.
(a) Trunk
(b) TCP
(c) HTTP
(d) TELNET
Answer – (a)
205. STP is a _________ link management protocol.
(a) layer 1
(b) layer 2
(c) layer 3
(d) none of the above
Answer – (b)
206. Which is not a data link layer function?
(a) Filtering
(b) Access Control
(c) Authentication
(d) Encryption
Answer – (d)
207. Which security protocol is not used to prevent an ARP Spoofing attack?
(a) TLS
(b) SSH
(c) SSL
(d) ESP
Answer – (d)
208. A port stealing attack exploits the vulnerability of _________ devices.
(a) hub
(b) router
(c) switch
(d) firewall
Answer – (c)
209. CAM overflow is an attack on _________ devices.
(a) layer 1
(b) layer 2
(c) layer 3
(d) none of the above
Answer – (b)
210. The attack in a VLAN in which the packets that are sent from one VLAN may be intercepted or redirected to another VLAN is:
(a) Inter-VLAN
(b) VLAN Hopping
(c) VLAN Spoofing
(d) none of the above
Answer – (b)
211. ________ infect the first sector of the hard drive, where the master boot record is stored.
(a) Boot sector viruses
(b) File infection viruses
(c) Mass mailer viruses
(d) None of the above
Answer – (a)
212. Mass mailer viruses search ________ programs.
(a) txt
(b) jpeg
(c) e-mail
(d) .doc
Answer – (c)
213. A(n) ________ virus is a virus composed of a sequence of instructions that is interpreted rather than executed directly.
(a) macro
(b) polymorphic
(c) armored
(d) stealth
Answer – (a)
214. ________ have the capabilities to change their appearance and change their code every time they infect a different system.
(a) Macro viruses
(b) Mass mailing viruses
(c) File infecting viruses
(d) Polymorphic viruses
Answer – (d)
215. Stealth viruses have the capabilities to hide from ________ or ________ software by making changes.
(a) operating systems; antivirus
(b) file systems; antivirus
(c) operating systems; application program
(d) none of the above
Answer – (a)
216. A ________ is a self-replicating program that penetrates an operating system with the intent of spreading malicious code.
(a) virus
(b) Trojan
(c) worm
(d) none of the above
Answer – (c)
217. ________ is an example of an e-mail worm.
(a) IRC worm
(b) I LOVE YOU
(c) Instant messaging worm
(d) Internet worm
Answer – (b)
218. ________ is strategically positioned in a network to detect any attack on the hosts of the network.
(a) HIDS
(b) IPS
(c) Signature based IDS
(d) NIDS
Answer – (d)
219. The ________ IDS works based on the principle of matching.
(a) Signature based IDS
(b) HIDS
(c) NIDS
(d) IPS
Answer – (a)
220. Behavior-based detection is also known as:
(a) anomaly based detection
(b) NIDS
(c) HIDS
(d) IPS
Answer – (a)
221. Operating system capabilities to identify what changes or attempts have been made is/are:
(a) firewall
(b) sniffer tools
(c) systems log
(d) none of the above
Answer – (c)
222. A network layer firewall has two sub-categories which are:
(a) stateful firewall and stateless firewall
(b) bit oriented firewall and byte oriented firewall
(c) frame firewall and packet firewall
(d) none of the mentioned
Answer – (a)
223. A ____ hides internal addresses from the outside world.
(a) NAT
(b) PPTP
(c) CHAP
(d) none of the above
Answer – (a)
224. Which one is not a VPN authentication protocol?
(a) PAP
(b) CHAP
(c) SPAP
(d) ALG
Answer – (d)
225. The computer network devices providing the tunnel for the client computer is generally known as a _______ for the PPTP and L2TP access concentrator.
(a) firewall
(b) network address translation
(c) front end processor
(d) none of the above
Answer – (c)
226. PPTP data tunneling is performed through multiple levels by ______.
(a) protocols
(b) communication
(c) encapsulation
(d) all of the above
Answer – (c)
227. A packet filter firewall works on the ______ and ____ layers of the OSI reference model.
(a) application; transport
(b) transport; network
(c) application; network
(d) all of the above
Answer – (b)
228. ______ tracks all changes and settings applied using group policy and its extension to the local computer and to users, who log on to the computer.
(a) VPN
(b) IDS
(c) IPS
(d) Verbose logging
Answer – (d)
229. VPN uses a combination of hardware and software to build an encrypted ____ tunnel through the public network.
(a) data
(b) key
(c) multiple
(d) none of the above
Answer – (a)
230. Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) provides no protection against ____ attacks, once the user’s password in compromised.
(a) brute force
(b) replay
(c) network
(d) all of the above
Answer – (b)
231. _______ is a point-to-point protocol authentication protocol that allows for an arbitrary authentication method.
(a) EAP
(b) MS CHAP
(c) CHAP
(d) SPAP
Answer – (a)
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