Network+ Practice Test Exam Questions with Answers

Network Practice Test Questions Techhyme

The Network+ certification, offered by CompTIA, is a highly respected credential for IT professionals seeking to validate their knowledge and skills in networking concepts. This certification covers a wide range of topics, including network architecture, protocols, troubleshooting, security, and more.

The Network+ exam is designed to assess your understanding of fundamental networking concepts and practical application. It consists of multiple-choice questions, and you will have a specified amount of time to complete the exam. The topics covered include network technologies, network media and topologies, network devices, protocols and services, network management, and network security.

If you’re planning to take the Network+ exam, this article will provide you with a set of practice test questions along with answers to help you prepare and succeed.

1. What is the IPv6 equivalent of (Choose two.)

A. 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1
B. 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:24
C. ::1
D. ::24

Answer – A and C
Explanation – The IPv4 address is reserved as the loopback address, and IPv6 has the same reservation. IPv6 addresses 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0 and 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1 are reserved as the loopback addresses. The address 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1 can be shown using the :: notation with the 0s removed, resulting in ::1.

2. Which of the following is a Class B address?


Answer – A
Explanation – Class B addresses fall into the range 128 to 191. Answer A is the only address listed that falls into that range. Answer B is a Class A address, and answers C and D are Class C IP addresses.

3. You are the administrator for a network with two Windows Server systems and 65 Windows 7 systems. At 10 a.m., three users call to report that they are experiencing network connectivity problems. Upon investigation, you determine that the DHCP server has failed. How can you tell that the DHCP server failure is the cause of the connectivity problems experienced by the three users?

A. When you check their systems, they have an IP address of
B. When you check their systems, they have an IP address in the 192.168.x.x address range.
C. When you check their systems, they have a default gateway value of
D. When you check their systems, they have an IP address from the 169.254.x.x range.

Answer – D
Explanation – When a Windows 7 system that is configured to obtain an IP address via DHCP fails to obtain an address, it uses APIPA to assign itself an address from the 169.254.x.x address range. An address of normally results from a system that does not support APIPA. APIPA does not use the 192.168.x.x address range. The IP address is the broadcast address. A DHCP failure would not lead to a system assigning itself this address.

4. Which of the following address types are associated with IPv6? (Choose three.)

A. Broadcast
B. Multicast
C. Unicast
D. Anycast

Answer – B, C, and D
Explanation – A key difference between IPv4 and IPv6 is in the address types. IPv6 addressing has three main types of addresses: unicast, multicast, and anycast. IPv4 uses broadcast addressing, but IPv6 doesn’t.

5. Which of the following IP addresses is not from a private address range?


Answer – C
Explanation – The 127.x.x.x network range is reserved for the loopback function. It is not one of the recognized private address ranges. The private address ranges as defined in RFC 1918 are 10.x.x.x, 172.16.x.x to 172.31.x.x, and 192.168.x.x.

6. You have been assigned to set up a new network with TCP/IP. For the external interfaces, you decide to obtain registered IP addresses from your ISP, but for the internal network, you choose to configure systems by using one of the private address ranges. Of the following address ranges, which one would you not consider?

A. to
B. to
C. to
D. to

Answer – B
Explanation – The 131.16 range is from the Class B range and is not one of the recognized private IP address ranges. All the other address ranges are valid private IP address ranges.

7. You ask your ISP to assign a public IP address for the external interface of your Windows 2008 server, which is running a proxy server application. In the email message you get that contains the information, the ISP tells you that you have been assigned the IP address When you fill out the subnet mask field on the IP configuration dialog box on your system, what subnet mask should you use?


Answer – B
Explanation – In CIDR terminology, the number of bits to be included in the subnet mask is expressed as a slash value. If the slash value is 24, the first three octets form the subnet mask, so the value is

8. Examine the diagram shown here. What is the most likely reason that user Spencer cannot communicate with user Evan?


A. The default gateways should have different values.
B. Spencer’s IP address is not a loopback address.
C. The subnet values should be the same.
D. There is no problem identifiable by the values given.

Answer – C
Explanation – The most likely problem, given the IP values for each user’s workstation, is that the subnet value is not correct on Spencer’s machine and should be

9. As the network administrator, you decide to block port 80. Which of the following services will be unavailable for network users?


Answer – D
Explanation –
The HTTP service uses port 80, so blocking port 80 prevents users from using the HTTP service. Answer A is incorrect because DNS uses port 53. Answer B is incorrect because POP3 uses port 110. Answer C is incorrect because FTP uses port 21.

10. Which of the following is the most commonly used port for FTP in modern implementations?

A. 20
B. 21
C. 23
D. 27

Answer – B
Explanation –
The most commonly used port for FTP in modern implementations is 21.

11. Which of the following best describes the function of the default gateway?

A. It provides the route for destinations outside the local network.
B. It enables a single Internet connection to be used by several users.
C. It identifies the local subnet and formulates a routing table.
D. It is used to communicate in a multiple-platform environment.

Answer – A
Explanation –
The default gateway enables systems on one local subnet to access those on another. Answer B does not accurately describe the role of the default gateway. Answers C and D don’t describe the main function of a default gateway, which is to provide the route for destinations outside the local network.

12. What is the term used for the number of hops necessary to reach a node?

A. Jump list
B. Link stops
C. Connections
D. Hop count

Answer – D
Explanation –
The hop count is the number of hops necessary to reach a node.

13. Port mirroring enables administrators to monitor which traffic to the switch?

A. Inbound only
B. Outbound only
C. Inbound and outbound
D. Neither inbound nor outbound

Answer – C
Explanation –
Port mirroring enables administrators to monitor the traffic outbound and inbound to the switch.

14. Which of the following is NOT used to avoid redundant paths and potential loops within ports?

A. Blocking
B. Learning
C. Forwarding
D. Jamming

Answer – D
Explanation –
The common methods to avoid redundant paths and potential loops within ports include blocking, disabled, forwarding, learning, and listening. Jamming is not one of the methods employed.

Achieving the Network+ certification can significantly enhance your networking knowledge and boost your career prospects. With a solid study plan, thorough preparation, and hands-on practice, you can confidently approach the Network+ exam and excel.

Remember to use a variety of study materials, leverage practical experience, and employ effective exam strategies. Best of luck on your Network+ journey!

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