Part 1: Mastering CCNA – Wireless (145 Practice Test Questions)

Mastering CCNA

In the rapidly evolving landscape of networking technologies, wireless communication has emerged as a cornerstone of connectivity. From homes to large enterprises, the demand for wireless networking solutions continues to surge, driving the need for skilled professionals proficient in its implementation and management. Among the certifications aimed at validating expertise in this domain, the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) – Wireless stands out as a prestigious credential.

This article marks the beginning of a comprehensive exploration into the CCNA – Wireless certification exam, which consists of 145 questions divided into two parts. Part 1 will explore into the foundational concepts, principles, and practical applications essential for aspiring wireless networking professionals. Through a series of questions covering a range of topics, this segment aims to provide a solid understanding of fundamental wireless networking principles, protocols, and technologies.

Also Read: Part 2: Exploring Deeper into CCNA – Wireless (145 Practice Test Questions)

Stay tuned as we embark on a journey to unravel the intricacies of wireless networking, equipping you with the knowledge and skills needed to excel in the CCNA – Wireless certification exam and beyond.

1. Which of the following accurately describes the goal of RF technology?

a. To send as much data as far as possible and as fast as possible
b. To send secure data to remote terminals
c. To send small amounts of data periodically
d. To send data and voice short distances using encryption

2. Which of the following is a significant problem experienced with wireless networks?

a. Infection
b. Policing
c. Transmission
d. Interference

3. Which two of the following are unlicensed frequency bands used in the United Stated? (Choose two.)

a. 2.0 MHz
b. 2.4 GHz
c. 5.0 GHz
d. 6.8 GHz

4. Each 2.4-GHz channel is how many megahertz wide?

a. 22 MHz
b. 26 MHz
c. 24 MHz
d. 28 MHz

5. How many nonoverlapping channels exist in the 2.4-GHz ISM range?

a. 9
b. 3
c. 17
d. 13

6. The 5.0-GHz range is used by which two of the following 802.11 standards? (Choose two.)

a. 802.11
b. 802.11b/g
c. 802.11n
d. 802.11a

7. Which three of the following modulation techniques doWLANs today use? (Choose three.)

b. AM
c. FM

8. DSSS uses a chipping code to encode redundant data into the modulated signal. Which two of the following are examples of chipping codes that DSSS uses? (Choose two.)

a. Barker code
b. Baker code
c. Complementary code keying (CCK)
d. Cypher block chaining (CBC)

9. DSSS binary phase-shift keying uses what method of encoding at the 1-Mbps data rate?

a. 11-chip Barker code
b. 8-chip CCK
c. 11-chip CCK
d. 8-chip Barker code

10. With DRS, when a laptop operating at 11 Mbps moves farther away from an access point, what happens?

a. The laptop roams to another AP.
b. The laptop loses its connection.
c. The rate shifts dynamically to 5.5 Mbps.
d. The rate increases, providing more throughput.

11. The FCC regulates wireless usage in which of the following countries?

a. United States of America
b. United Arab Emirates
c. United Kingdom
d. Europe, Asia, and Asia

12. True or false: The U.S. complies with ETSI standards of EIRP.

a. True
b. False

13. What is the maximum EIRP for point-to-multipoint in Europe? (Choose all that apply.)

a. 20 dBm
b. 17 dBi
c. 17 dBm
d. 36 dBm

14. The FCC regulates EIRP in the U.S. to a maximum of _____ for point-to-point and _____ for point-to-multipoint.

a. 36 dBm, 36 dBm
b. 30 dBm, 17 dBm
c. 17 dBm, 36, dBm
d. 36 dBm, 17 dBm

15. The IEEE committees work on which of the following wireless standards? (Choose all that apply.)

a. 802.11a
b. 802.11g
c. 802.11x
d. 802.1q
e. 802.11b

16. True or false: The IEEE is a regulatory body in the U.S. that controls the usage of wireless frequencies.

a. True
b. False

17. In Europe, can a professional installer increase the gain on wireless antennas?

a. Yes, provided that he or she decreases the transmit power using a 1:1 ratio.
b. No; this is illegal.
c. Only with a wavier.
d. Antennas don’t have anything to do with gain.

18. The FCC regulates that professional installers maintain what ratio of gain to transmit power when increasing the gain of an antenna?

a. 3:1
b. 1:1
c. 6:1
d. 1:3

19. Which organization certifies interoperability for wireless equipment?

a. Wi-Max Alliance
c. Wi-Fi Alliance
d. FRF.12

20. Certification of wireless equipment includes which protocols and standards for interoperability? (Choose two.)

a. 802.11a/b/g
b. IPsec
d. Zigbee

21. Which of the following best describes a frequency that is seen 1 million times per second?

a. 1 Hz
b. 1000000 Mb
c. 1 joule
d. 1 MHz

22. What does amplitude measure?

a. Distance from high crest to high crest horizontally in a waveform
b. Distance between two access points
c. Distance from low crest to midspan in a waveform
d. Height of wave from lowest crest to highest crest

23. EIRP is calculated using which of the following formulas?

a. EIRP = transmitter power – cable loss + antenna gain
b. EIRP = interference – cable loss + antenna gain
c. EIRP = cable gain – cable loss + antenna gain
d. EIRP = transmitter loss + cable loss + antenna gain

24. Metal desks, glass, light fixtures, and computer screens can contribute to which influence on wireless transmissions?

a. Scattering
b. Refraction
c. Reflection
d. Absorption

25. Carpet, human bodies, and walls can contribute to which influence on wireless transmission?

a. Scattering
b. Refraction
c. Reflection
d. Absorption

26. In the Free Path Loss model, objects that are farther away from a transmitter receive the same amount of signal as those that are closer to the transmitter. True or False?

a. True
b. False

27. If a signal is being spread about by microparticles, it is experiencing which influence on wireless transmissions?

a. Scattering
b. Spreading
c. Scarring
d. Splitting
e. Refracting

28. Multipath causes which of the following issues? (Choose all that apply.)

a. Redundant connectivity
b. The signal becoming out of phase, which can potentially cancel the signal
c. The signal being received by multiple devices in the path, causing security concerns
d. Portions of the signal being reflected and arriving out of order

29. Scattering is caused by humidity. True or False?

a. True
b. False

30. For line of sight (LOS) transmissions, what can determine where signals can become out of phase?

a. Free Path Zone
c. Fresnel Zone
d. Phase Zone

31. Link budget is used to do which of the following? (Choose two.)

a. Account for all the receivers on a link
b. Account for all the gains and losses
c. Determine how much money you can spend on a wireless deployment
d. Factor in EIRP and attenuation for a transmission

32. Which of the following topologies can be used with clients closer than 20 feet?


33. True or false: A WLAN uses 802.16b.

a. True
b. False

34. What topology is most often seen in a LAN and is designed to connect multiple devices to the network?


35. In what frequency ranges does a wireless LAN operate? (Choose two.)

a. 2.2 GHz
b. 2.4 GHz
c. 2.4 MHz
d. 5 GHz
e. 5 MHz

36. What type of speed can you expect from a WMAN?

a. Broadband
b. WAN
c. Ethernet
d. Dialup modem

37. What is the name of the common WMAN technology?

a. WiMAN
b. WiMAX
c. Wi-Fi
d. WiNET

38. True or false: Deploying a WWAN is relatively inexpensive, so it’s common for enterprise customers to deploy their own.

a. True
b. False

39. Which of the following are 802.11 topologies for LANs? (Choose all that apply.)

a. Adsense
b. Ad hoc
c. Infrastructure
d. Internal

40. What does BSS stand for?

a. Basic Service Signal
b. Basic Service Separation
c. Basic Service Set
d. Basic Signal Server

41. If an AP is not used in a wireless network, this is called which of the following?

a. Independent Basic Service Set
b. Solitary Service Set
c. Single-Mode Set (SMS)
d. Basic Individual Service Set

42. For two devices to communicate without an access point, you must define which of the following?

a. A group name
b. A password
c. A network number
d. A key

43. True or false: When operating in infrastructure mode, an AP is operating in full-duplex mode.

a. True
b. False

44. What device does an access point act as to connect wireless clients to a wired network?

a. Hub
b. Bridge
c. Router
d. Repeater

45. What is another name for wireless clients?

a. Stations
b. End nodes
c. Clients
d. Mobile APs

46. An access point is what kind of device?

a. Support device
b. Network device
c. Perimeter device
d. Infrastructure device

47. What is the name for the area of coverage offered by a single access point?

a. VSA
b. MSA
c. TSA
d. BSA

48. When more than one AP connects to a common distribution, what is the network called?

a. Extended Service Area
b. Basic Service Area
c. Local Service Area

49. Clients connect to which of the following to access the LAN via a wireless AP?

d. BSA

50. When one area exists, what is the name of the service set advertised by an AP?


51. Using MBSSIDs indicates which of the following?

a. More than one AP is advertising SSIDs.
b. More than one SSID is being advertised by one AP.
c. The AP sees more than one SSID.
d. There are multiple MACs on one SSID.

52. What can you use to connect an isolated wired network to a LAN?

b. WGB
c. Repeater
d. Hub

53. Cisco offers which types of wireless bridges? (Choose two.)

a. aWGB
b. bWGB
c. uWGB
d. cWGB

54. For topologies where cable lengths prohibit placing an AP in certain locations, what solution can be used?

a. Install a new switch that’s closer.
b. Install a hub instead.
c. Install a repeater.
d. Install a wireless client.

55. How much overlap is needed with an AP when a wireless repeater is used?

a. 10 to 15 percent
b. 100 percent
c. 50 percent
d. 40 to 80 percent

56. True or false: Outdoor mesh networks support only point-to-point topologies.

a. True
b. False

57. Mesh deployments are appropriate when __________ is a major concern.

a. Connectivity
b. Security
c. Cost
d. Speed

58. Which of the following are types of polarization? (Choose all that apply.)

a. Vertical
b. Horizontal
c. Nautical
d. Circular

59. All Cisco antennas use what type of polarization?

a. Linear
b. Circular
c. Magnetic
d. Perpendicular

60. In an electromagnetic wave, where is the magnetic wave found in relation to the electric wave?

a. Parallel to the electric wave.
b. At a 45-degree angle to the electric wave.
c. Perpendicular (at a 90-degree angle).
d. There is no magnetic wave.

61. How many antennas are used with diversity?

a. Three
b. Four
c. One
d. Two

62. What does diversity listen to when choosing a better antenna to use?

a. The destination MAC address
b. The preamble
c. The data
d. The source MAC address

63. How far apart should antennas be placed when using diversity?

a. 2 meters
b. Two wavelengths
c. One wavelength
d. 1 meter

64. True or false: Two antennas using diversity can cover two areas.

a. True
b. False

65. What are the main families of antennas? (Choose all that apply.)

a. Omnidirectional
b. Unidirectional
c. Directional
d. Yagi

66. In relation to sending a linear waveform, the horizontal plane (H-plane) is also called what?

a. Vertical plane
b. Azimuth
c. Axis
d. Linear plane

67. To display the coverage from top to bottom, what plane is represented?

a. A-plane
b. E-plane
c. C-plane
d. Airplane

68. The 2.2 dipole antenna is designed for what type of deployment?

a. Indoor omnidirectional
b. Indoor directional
c. Outdoor point-to-point
d. Outdoor omnidirectional

69. Which antenna is considered a “special” omnidirectional antenna?

a. AIR-ANT1728
b. AIR-ANT3338
c. AIR-ANT2485P-R
d. AIR-ANT3213

70. A yagi antenna is best used in what setting or settings? (Choose all that apply.)

a. Warehouse where multiple antennas are lined up
b. Conference room
c. Point-to-point over long distances
d. Long hallways

71. True or false: A parabolic dish antenna uses a wide RF path.

a. True
b. False

72. For mounting reasons, what can be changed on a parabolic antenna?

a. Polarity
b. Diversity
c. Shape
d. Radiation pattern

73. The AIR-ANT3213 uses how many antennas?

a. Two
b. Four
c. Six
d. One

74. Cisco uses which types of connectors? (Choose all that apply.)

a. SMA
b. N-connector
d. TNC

75. To lower the amount of energy being sent to the antenna, which of the following devices could be used?

a. Amplifier
b. Attenuator
c. Lightning arrestor
d. Fiber-patch

76. To increase the amount of energy, which of the following devices could be used?

a. Amplifier
b. Attenuator
c. Lightning arrestor
d. Fiber-patch

77. True or false: Lightning arrestors are designed to withstand a full lightning strike.

a. True
b. False

78. What organization standardizes the 802.11 set of protocols?

c. FCC

79. What is the maximum data rate that the original 802.11 protocol supports?

a. 1 Mbps
b. 5 Mbps
c. 2 Mbps
d. 3 Mbps

80. The original 802.11 protocol supported which two RF technologies? (Choose two.)


81. The original 802.11 protocol operates in which frequency range?

a. 2.0 GHz
b. 900 MHz
c. 5.0 GHz
d. 2.4 GHz

82. The original 802.11 protocol operates in the ISM bands. True or false?

a. True
b. False

83. 802.11b operates on which frequency range?

a. 2.0 GHz
b. 900 MHz
c. 5.0 GHz
d. 2.4 GHz

84. 802.11b has how many nonoverlapping channels?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 8

85. Which of the following modulation techniques are used by 802.11b? (Choose all that apply.)

b. 16-QAM
d. 64-QAM

86. What coding method is used by 802.11b? (Choose all that apply.)

a. Barker 11
b. CCK
c. Barker 8

87. Which 802.11b channels do not overlap? (Choose all that apply.)

a. 1
b. 3
c. 6
d. 11

88. What modulation technique is used by the 802.11g protocol? (Choose all that apply.)

c. QAM
d. Barker

89. What is the maximum data rate that the 802.11g protocol supports?

a. 22 Mbps
b. 48 Mbps
c. 54 Mbps
d. 90 Mbps

90. When no 802.11b clients are in an 802.11b/g cell, what information will be in the AP beacon?

a. NON_ERP present: yes; Use Protection: no
b. NON_ERP present: no; Use Protection: yes
c. NON_ERP present: yes; Use Protection: yes
d. NON_ERP present: no; Use Protection: no

91. What are two protection methods used by 802.11g clients when an 802.11b client is in the cell? (Choose two.)

b. LMI
c. CTS to self
d. RTS to self

92. The 802.11a protocol is backward compatible only with 802.11g because they support the same maximum data rates. True or false?

a. True
b. False

93. An 802.11a client must support which data rates?

a. 6, 12, 24 Mbps
b. 11, 24, 54 Mbps
c. 6, 9, 12, 18, 24, 36, 48, 54 Mbps
d. 6, 11, 24, 48 Mbps

94. The 802.11a protocol operates in which frequency spectrum?

a. 2.0 GHz
b. 900 MHz
c. 5.0 GHz
d. 2.4 GHz

95. Which is not a valid modulation technique for 802.11a?

c. Barker 11
d. QAM

96. 802.11a uses the UNII-1, UNII-2, and UNII-3 bands. Which bands are usable without a license in Europe? (Choose all that apply.)

a. UNII-1
b. UNII-2
c. UNII-3
d. UNII-4.1

97. The FCC and ETSI have imposed what requirements for use in the UNII-2 and UNII- 3 bands? (Choose all that apply.)

a. DFC
b. TPC

98. 802.11n supports multiple antennas using what technology?

b. MAO
c. Multi-scan antenna output
d. Spatial coding

99. What type of multiplexing does 802.11n use?

a. Spatial

100. What task does TxBF accomplish in 802.11n networks?

a. The signal is sent over multiple transmit antennas, improving performance at the receiver.
b. The signal increases in gain to accomplish greater distances.
c. The signal is spread across multiple channels and then re-created at the receiver to negate interference issues on sidebands.
d. The signal is bonded on a 40-MHz channel, giving you more bandwidth.

101. How does 802.11n improve the throughput with acknowledgments?

a. It uses a 1-for-1 acknowledgment option; 1 sent = 1 acknowledged.
b. It does not use acknowledgments.
c. It uses block acknowledgments.
d. It uses a 2-to-1 ratio of sent frames to acknowledgments.

102. A device that has two transmit antennas and two receive antennas is referred to as which of the following?

a. Dual TxRx
b. 2X2
c. 2x
d. A double

103. What are the three frame types seen in a wireless LAN? (Choose three.)

a. Management
b. Control
c. Data
d. Contention

104. What type of frame is used for acknowledging receipt of data?

a. Control
b. Reply
c. Null
d. Management

105. What frame type is used to send beacons?

a. Control
b. Management
c. Informational
d. Data

106. To determine if the medium is in use, which of the following are used? (Choose all that apply.)

a. CCA
b. CAS
c. VCA
d. VCS

107. Which interframe space is used for quickly sending a frame?


108. How many MAC addresses can be present in a wireless header?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

109. Which of the following is a management frame type?

a. Probe response
b. ACK
c. RTS
d. Null function

110. Beacons contain information to assist clients in accessing the network. Which of the following is not in a beacon?

a. Beacon interval
b. Capability information
c. A reference time for the cell
d. The WEP passphrase

111. A client that connects by hearing a beacon is said to use what type of scanning?

a. Passive
b. Classic
c. Active
d. Fast

112. A client that sends a probe request is said to use what type of scanning?

a. Preemptive
b. Dynamic
c. Passive
d. Active

113. A client that sends a deauthentication message must reauthenticate when it returns to the cell. True or false?

a. True
b. False

114. A client that sends a disassociation message must reauthenticate when it returns to the cell. True or false?

a. True
b. False

115. Who developed the DECT standard?

a. FCC

116. DECT devices in the U.S. use what designation to differentiate them from European DECT devices?

a. DECT 1.0
b. DECT 2.0
c. DECT 6.0

117. Bluetooth is designed to cover what type of area?

a. Metropolitan
b. Wide area
c. Local area
d. Personal area

118. How many Bluetooth devices can be paired?

a. Two
b. Four
c. Six
d. Eight

119. Bluetooth operates in which frequency band?

a. 2.4 GHz
b. 5.0 GHz
c. 900 MHz
d. 10 GHz

120. What is the current Bluetooth standard?

a. Bluetooth 2008
b. Bluetooth 2.1 + EDR
c. Bluetooth 2.0
d. Bluetooth 1.1

121. Which group is responsible for Bluetooth development?

b. Bluetooth SIG
c. Bluetooth Forum
d. Bluetooth Inc.

122. ZigBee is used for what common deployments? (Choose all that apply.)

a. Home automation
b. Monitoring
c. GPS location
d. Control systems

123. ZigBee operates in which frequency band?

a. 2.4 GHz
b. 5.0 GHz
c. 900 MHz
d. 10 GHz

124. True or false: WiMax interferes with 802.11 LANs because it operates on the same frequency band.

a. True
b. False

125. WiMax is designed for what type of connections?

a. Last-mile access
b. Wireless mesh LANs
c. Point-to-multipoint WANs
d. Single-cell

126. WiMax is defined in which IEEE specification?

a. 802.15.1
b. 802.16e
c. 802.1
d. 802.3

127. Fixed line of sight (LOS) offers which data rate?

a. 40 Mbps
b. 100 Mbps
c. 1 Gbps
d. 10 Mbps

128. NLOS advertises which data rate?

a. 30 to 40 Mbps
b. 100 Mbps
c. 70 Mbps
d. 1 Gbps

129. Which of the following are potential sources of interference for WLANs? (Choose all that apply.)

a. Microwave
b. Fluorescent light
c. Magnet
d. Microphone

130. When a client wants to send traffic to another device, it must use what protocol to resolve the MAC addresses?

a. ARP
b. CDP
c. NPR

131. If a client wants to communicate with a device on another subnet, what device handles the communication?

a. WLC
b. Switch
c. AP
d. Gateway router

132. How many MAC addresses can be seen in an 802.11 frame?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

133. What protocol is the 802.11 frame encapsulated in when it is sent from the AP to the WLC?

b. CDP
c. 802.3

134. A VLAN is used to define a ___________ and isolate a __________. (Choose two.)

a. Logical broadcast domain
b. Transparent network
c. Virtual trunk
d. Subnet

135. Clients see VLANs. True or False?

a. True
b. False

136. How many VLANs typically are assigned to an access port on a switch?

a. 2
b. 4
c. 256
d. 1

137. What are trunks normally used for?

a. Connections between APs
b. Connections between switches and clients
c. Connections between switches
d. Switches do not support trunks

138. Which of the following commands is used to create a trunk?

a. switchport mode trunk
b. switchport trunk enable
c. switchport trunk
d. trunk enable

139. Which of the following commands defines the native VLAN?

a. native vlan 1
b. switchport native vlan 1
c. switchport mode native 1
d. switchport trunk native vlan 1

140. What kind of AP does a controller manage?

a. Lightweight AP
b. Managed AP
d. Autonomous AP

141. Which of the following is not a functional area of the Cisco Unified Wireless Network?

a. AP
b. Controller
c. Client
d. ACS

142. Of all the Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers, what is the greatest number of APs you can support?

a. Up to 50
b. Up to 150
c. Up to 300
d. Up to 30,000

143. What protocol is used for communication between an AP and a WLC?

a. STP
d. TCP

144. Which of the following functions does the controller handle? (Choose all that apply.)

a. Association
b. Reassociation when you have clients that are roaming
c. The authentication process
d. Frame exchange and the handshake between the clients

145. Which of the following functions does the AP handle? (Choose all that apply.)

a. Buffer and transmit the frames for clients that are in power-save mode
b. Frame bridging
c. Send responses to probe requests from different clients on the network
d. Forward notifications of received probe requests to the controller

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