CCNA Practice Test Questions with Answers

The Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) certification is a foundational credential for IT professionals seeking to validate their skills in networking and IT infrastructure. Achieving CCNA certification demonstrates proficiency in installing, configuring, operating, and troubleshooting medium-sized routed and switched networks.

Aspirants often prepare for the exam using practice tests to assess their knowledge and readiness. In this article, we present a set of 60 CCNA practice test questions with answers to aid in your exam preparation.

1. What is the sys-id-ext field in a BPDU used for?

A. It is a 4-bit field inserted into an Ethernet frame to define trunking information between switches.
B. It is a 12-bit field inserted into an Ethernet frame to define VLANs in an STP instance.
C. It is a 4-bit field inserted into an non-Ethernet frame to define EtherChannel options.
D. It is a 12-bit field inserted into an Ethernet frame to define STP root bridges.

2. You have four RSTP PVST+ links between switches and want to aggregate the bandwidth. What solution will you use?

A. EtherChannel
B. PortFast
C. BPDU Channel
D. VLANs
E. EtherBundle

3. What configuration parameters must be configured the same between switches for LACP to form a channel? (Choose three.)

A. Virtual MAC address
B. Port speeds
C. Duplex
D. PortFast enabled
E. Allowed VLAN information

4. You reload a router with a configuration register setting of 0x2101. What will the router do when it reloads?

A. The router enters setup mode.
B. The router enters ROM monitor mode.
C. The router boots the mini-IOS in ROM.
D. The router expands the first IOS in flash memory into RAM.

5. Which of the following commands provides the product ID and serial number of a router?

A. show license
B. show license feature
C. show version
D. show license udi

6. Which command allows you to view the technology options and licenses that are supported on your router along with several status variables?

A. show license
B. show license feature
C. show license udi
D. show version

7. You need to look at past network data in DNA Center. How long can you look back into the DNA snapshot?

A. 1 Day
B. 3 Days
C. 5 Days
D. 1 Week
E. 1 Month

8. You want to send a console message to a syslog server, but you only want to send status messages of 3 and lower. Which of the following commands will you use?

A. logging trap emergencies
B. logging trap errors
C. logging trap debugging
D. logging trap notifications
E. logging trap critical
F. logging trap warnings
G. logging trap alerts

9. You are using the Code Preview feature. Which of the following is this used for? (Choose three.)

A. Enroll in beta updates for DNA Center
B. View what a code will do when ran against DNA Center
C. Generates a sample code snippet to call the Restful API resource in the scripting lan- guage to your choice.
D. Viewing the source code for a DNA Center application

10. You need to connect to a remote IPv6 server in your virtual server farm. You can connect to the IPv4 servers, but not the critical IPv6 server you desperately need. Based on the following output, what could your problem be?

C:\>ipconfig
Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : localdomain
IPv6 Address. . . . . . . . . . . : 2001:db8:3c4d:3:ac3b:2ef:1823:8938
Temporary IPv6 Address. . . . . . : 2001:db8:3c4d:3:2f33:44dd:211:1c3d
Link-local IPv6 Address . . . . . : fe80::ac3b:2ef:1823:8938%11
IPv4 Address. . . . . . . . . . . : 10.1.1.10
Subnet Mask . . . . . . . . . . . : 255.255.255.0
Default Gateway . . . . . . . . . : 10.1.1.1

A. The global address is in the wrong subnet.
B. The IPv6 default gateway has not been configured or received from the router.
C. The link-local address has not been resolved so the host cannot communicate to the router.
D. There are two IPv6 global addresses configured. One must be removed from the configuration.

11. What command is used to view the IPv6-to-MAC-address resolution table on a Cisco router?

A. show ip arp
B. show ipv6 arp
C. show ip neighbors
D. show ipv6 neighbors
E. show arp

12. An IPv6 ARP entry is listed as with a status of REACH. What can you conclude about the IPv6-to-MAC-address mapping?

A. The interface has communicated with the neighbor address and the mapping is current.
B. The interface has not communicated within the neighbor reachable time frame.
C. The ARP entry has timed out.
D. IPv6 can reach the neighbor address but the addresses has not yet been resolved.

13. Which configuration management solutions require agents? (Choose two.)

A. Puppet
B. Ansible
C. Chef
D. Cisco IOS

14. ____________ is a Ruby-based configuration management tool that uses custom manifest files to configure devices.

A. Ansible
B. Puppet
C. Chef
D. Manifold

15. ____________ is a Ruby-based configuration tool that uses cookbooks to apply configuration.

A. Ansible
B. Puppet
C. Chef
D. Manifold

16. You have two OSPF directly configured routers that are not forming an adjacency. What should you check? (Choose three.)

A. Process ID
B. Hello and dead timers
C. Link cost
D. Area
E. IP address/subnet mask

17. When do two adjacent routers enter the 2WAY state?

A. After both routers have received Hello information
B. After they have exchanged topology databases
C. When they connect only to a DR or BDR
D. When they need to exchange RID information

18. You want to use the Command Runner. What is this used for?

A. Pushing OSPF configuration
B. Pushing Show commands and viewing the results
C. Pushing ACL configuration
D. Pushing Interface configurations
E. Pushing a banner configuration

19. What type of switching is done in a network fabric?

A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 7

20. Which statement about GRE is not true?

A. GRE is stateless and has no flow control.
B. GRE has security.
C. GRE has additional overhead for tunneled packets, at least 24 bytes.
D. GRE uses a protocol-type field in the GRE header so any layer 3 protocol can be used through the tunnel.

21. Which QoS mechanism will drop traffic if a session uses more than the allotted bandwidth?

A. Congestion management
B. Shaping
C. Policing
D. Marking

22. IPv6 unicast routing is running on the Corp router. Which of the following addresses would show up with the show ipv6 int brief command?

Corp#sh int f0/0
FastEthernet0/0 is up, line protocol is up
Hardware is AmdFE, address is 000d.bd3b.0d80 (bia 000d.bd3b.0d80)
[output cut]

A. FF02::3c3d:0d:bdff:fe3b:0d80
B. FE80::3c3d:2d:bdff:fe3b:0d80
C. FE80::3c3d:0d:bdff:fe3b:0d80
D. FE80::3c3d:2d:ffbd:3bfe:0d80

23. A host sends a type of NDP message providing the MAC address that was requested. Which type of NDP was sent?

A. NA
B. RS
C. RA
D. NS

24. Each field in an IPv6 address is how many bits long?

A. 4
B. 16
C. 32
D. 128

25. To enable OSPFv3, which of the following would you use?

A. Router(config-if)#ipv6 ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0
B. Router(config-if)#ipv6 router rip 1
C. Router(config)#ipv6 router eigrp 10
D. Router(config-rtr)#no shutdown
E. Router(config-if)#ospf ipv6 10 area 0

26. What does the command routerA(config)#line cons 0 allow you to perform next?

A. Set the Telnet password.
B. Shut down the router.
C. Set your console password.
D. Disable console connections.

27. Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)

A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0.
D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E. The network is not subnetted.

28. On which interface do you configure an IP address for a switch?

A. int fa0/0
B. int vty 0 15
C. int vlan 1
D. int s/0/0

29. Which of the following is the valid host range for the subnet on which the IP address 192.168.168.188 255.255.255.192 resides?

A. 192.168.168.129–190
B. 192.168.168.129–191
C. 192.168.168.128–190
D. 192.168.168.128–192

30. Which of the following is considered to be the inside host’s address after translation?

A. Inside local
B. Outside local
C. Inside global
D. Outside global

31. Your inside locals are not being translated to the inside global addresses. Which of the following commands will show you if your inside globals are allowed to use the NAT pool?

ip nat pool Corp 198.18.41.129 198.18.41.134 netmask 255.255.255.248
ip nat inside source list 100 int pool Corp overload

A. debug ip nat
B. show access-list
C. show ip nat translation
D. show ip nat statistics

32. How many collision domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 12

33. Which of the following commands will allow you to set your Telnet password on a Cisco router?

A. line telnet 0 4
B. line aux 0 4
C. line vty 0 4
D. line con 0

34. Which router command allows you to view the entire contents of all access lists?

A. show all access-lists
B. show access-lists
C. show ip interface
D. show interface

35. What does a VLAN do?

A. Acts as the fastest port to all servers
B. Provides multiple collision domains on one switch port
C. Breaks up broadcast domains in a layer 2 switch internetwork
D. Provides multiple broadcast domains within a single collision domain

36. If you wanted to delete the configuration stored in NVRAM, choose the best answer for the Cisco objectives.

A. erase startup
B. delete running
C. erase flash
D. erase running

37. Which protocol is used to send a destination network unknown message back to originating hosts?

A. TCP
B. ARP
C. ICMP
D. BootP

38. Which class of IP address provides 15 bits for subnetting?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

39. What DNS record do you need to create for APs to automatically discover the WLC.

A. CISCO-WLC-CONTROLLER
B. WLC-CONTROLLER
C. CISCO-AP-CONTROLLER
D. CISCO-DISCOVER-CONTROLLER
E. CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER

40. Which one of the following is true regarding VLANs?

A. Two VLANs are configured by default on all Cisco switches.
B. VLANs only work if you have a complete Cisco switched internetwork. No off-brand switches are allowed.
C. You should not have more than 10 switches in the same VTP domain.
D. You need to have a trunk link configured between switches in order to send information about more than one VLAN down the link.

41. Which two of the following commands will place network 10.2.3.0/24 into area 0? (Choose two.)

A. router eigrp 10
B. router ospf 10
C. router rip
D. network 10.0.0.0
E. network 10.2.3.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
F. network 10.2.3.0 0.0.0.255 area0
G. network 10.2.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

42. What command do you use to lookup a module in Ansible?

A. Ansible-doc
B. Ansible-execute
C. Ansible-Playbook
D. Run-Playbook

43. If routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a router use for the OSPF router ID in the absence of a loopback interface?

A. The lowest IP address of any physical interface
B. The highest IP address of any physical interface
C. The lowest IP address of any logical interface
D. The highest IP address of any logical interface

44. What protocols are used to configure trunking on a switch? (Choose two.)

A. VLAN Trunking Protocol
B. VLAN
C. 802.1q
D. ISL

45. What’s the default QoS queue for a WLAN?

A. Gold
B. Platinum
C. Bronze
D. Silver
E. Diamond

46. Where is a hub specified in the OSI model?

A. Session layer
B. Physical layer
C. Data Link layer
D. Application layer

47. What are the two main types of access control lists (ACLs)? (Choose two.)

A. Standard
B. IEEE
C. Extended
D. Specialized

48. Which port does TACACS+ use for accounting?

A. UDP 49
B. UDP 1645
C. UDP 1812
D. UDP 1813
E. TCP 49

49. What command is used to create a backup configuration?

A. copy running backup
B. copy running-config startup-config
C. config mem
D. wr net

50. 1000Base-T is which IEEE standard?

A. 802.3f
B. 802.3z
C. 802.3ab
D. 802.3ae

51. Which protocol does DHCP use at the Transport layer?

A. IP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. ARP

52. Which of the following best describes a Resource in Restful API?

A. The specific path to the resource you’re trying to access through the API
B. The security token for the request.
C. Filtering options for the request
D. The full URL

53. Which command is used to determine if an access list is enabled on a particular interface?

A. show access-lists
B. show interface
C. show ip interface
D. show interface access-lists

54. Which of the following statements is true with regard to ISL and 802.1q?

A. 802.1q encapsulates the frame with control information; ISL inserts an ISL field along with tag control information.
B. 802.1q is Cisco proprietary.
C. ISL encapsulates the frame with control information; 802.1q inserts an 802.1q field along with tag control information.
D. ISL is a standard.

55. The protocol data unit (PDU) encapsulation is completed in which order?

A. Bits, frames, packets, segments, data
B. Data, bits, segments, frames, packets
C. Data, segments, packets, frames, bits
D. Packets, frames, bits, segments, data

56. Based on the configuration shown below, what statement is true?

S1(config)#ip routing
S1(config)#int vlan 10
S1(config-if)#ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
S1(config-if)#int vlan 20
S1(config-if)#ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0

A. This is a multilayer switch.
B. The two VLANs are in the same subnet.
C. Encapsulation must be configured.
D. VLAN 10 is the management VLAN.

57. You boss read about WPA3 and want you to explain it to him. What replaced the default open authentication with which of the following enhancements?

A. AES
B. OWL
C. OWE
D. TKIP

58. Which AP modes serve wireless traffic? (Choose 2)

A. Local
B. Monitor
C. FlexConnect
D. Sniffer
E. SE-Connect

59. Which of the following choices best defines a token in Restful API?

A. How you filter the response from the Restful API service
B. How you save the output from the Restful API service
C. How you authorize access to the Restful API service
D. How you authenticate to the Restful API service

60. What can the Code Preview feature be used for? (Choose three.)

A. Enroll in beta updates for DNA Center
B. View what a code will do when ran against DNA Center
C. Generates a sample code snippet to call the Restful API resource in the scripting lan- guage to your choice
D. Viewing the source code for a DNA Center application

Correct Answers:

1. B.
2. A.
3. B, C, E.
4. C.
5. D.
6. B.
7. D.
8. B.
9. C.
10. B.
11. D.
12. A.
13. A, C.
14. B.
15. C.
16. B, D, E.
17. A.
18. B.
19. B.
20. B.
21. C.
22. B.
23. A.
24. B.
25. A.
26. C.
27. B, D.
28. C.
29. A.
30. C.
31. B.
32. D.
33. C.
34. B.
35. C.
36. A.
37. C.
38. A.
39. E.
40. D.
41. B, G.
42. C.
43. B.
44. C, D.
45. D.
46. B.
47. A, C.
48. E.
49. B.
50. C.
51. C.
52. A.
53. C.
54. C.
55. C.
56. A.
57. C.
58. A, C.
59. D.
60. C.

Preparing for the CCNA certification exam requires a solid understanding of networking concepts and technologies. Practice tests are invaluable tools for assessing your knowledge and identifying areas that need improvement.

By familiarizing yourself with the types of questions and topics covered in the exam, you can enhance your readiness and increase your chances of success.

The CCNA practice test questions provided in this article serve as a valuable resource for aspiring CCNA professionals on their journey to mastering networking fundamentals.

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