Part 2: Exploring Deeper into CCNA – Wireless (145 Practice Test Questions)

Exploring Deeper into CCNA

Continuing our exploration of the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) – Wireless certification exam, Part 2 explores deeper into the complexities of wireless networking. With an additional set of 145 questions, this segment builds upon the foundational knowledge established in Part 1, offering a more comprehensive understanding of advanced concepts, configurations, and troubleshooting techniques relevant to wireless networking professionals.

From WLAN security protocols to RF fundamentals and network infrastructure design, Part 2 of this article series will navigate through various aspects of wireless networking, preparing you to tackle the challenges presented in the CCNA – Wireless certification exam with confidence and proficiency. Whether you’re aiming to validate your expertise, advance your career, or enhance your skill set in wireless networking, this segment will serve as a valuable resource in your journey towards mastery

Also Read: Part 1: Mastering CCNA – Wireless (145 Practice Test Questions)

Join us as we unravel the intricacies of wireless networking, empowering you to excel in the CCNA – Wireless certification exam and thrive in today’s interconnected world.

1. How many VLANs does an AP typically handle?

a. 13
b. 15
c. 16
d. 512

2. How many elements comprise the CUWN architecture?

a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20

3. Which of the following APs support 802.11a/b and g? (Choose all that apply.)

a. 1130AG
b. 1240AG
c. 1300 series
d. 1400 series

4. Which AP supports the 802.11n draft version 2.0?

a. 1250 series AP
b. 1240 AG
c. 1300 series
d. 1130 AG

5. When an AP operates in H-REAP mode, where would it be seen?

a. In a campus
b. At the remote edge of a WAN
c. In the data center
d. Bridging site-to-site

6. The 4400 seriesWLC, model AIR-WLC4404-100-K9, can support up to how many APs?

a. 50
b. 100
c. 300
d. 600

7. True or false: An AP must run the same version of code as the controller.

a. True
b. False

8. What type of device is the 3750G series Wireless LAN Controller integrated into?

a. A router as a module
b. A router as part of the code
c. A 3750 series switch
d. It’s a blade for the 6500 series.

9. How many APs can the Cisco WiSM manage?

a. 100
b. 150
c. 300
d. 600

10. How many lightweight APs can you have in a mobility domain?

a. 512
b. 1024
c. 3068
d. 7200

11. With wireless network management, what device is used to track more than one device at a time?

a. WCS
b. WCS navigator
c. Location appliance
d. Rogue AP detector

12. What two modes can LWAPP operate in? (Choose two.)

a. Layer 2 LWAPP mode
b. Joint LWAPP mode
c. Autonomous LWAPP mode
d. Layer 3 LWAPP mode

13. When LWAPP communication between the access point and the wireless LAN controller happens in native, Layer 2 Ethernet frames, what is this known as?

a. EtherWAPP
b. Hybrid mode
c. Native mode LWAPP
d. Layer 2 LWAPP mode

14. What is the only requirement for Layer 3 LWAPP mode?

a. IP connectivity must be established between the access points and the WLC.
b. You must know the IP addressing on the AP.
c. Client devices must be in the same VLAN.
d. Each device in the Layer 3 domain must be on the same subnet.

15. Which state is not a valid state of an AP that is discovering and joining a controller?

a. Discover
b. Join
c. Image Data
d. Hybrid-REAP

16. What is the first step in a Layer 3 LWAPP discovery?

a. Priming
b. AP Join Request
c. Subnet broadcast of Layer 3 LWAPP discovery message

17. AP-Priming is used for which of the following?

a. Prime an AP prior to bootup with complex algorithms
b. Deliver a list of controllers to the AP using a hunting process and discovery algorithm
c. Perform basic setup of controller configurations delivered to the AP
d. Provision an AP over the air

18. Which of the following is not contained in a join response message?

a. Type of controller
b. Interfaces in the controller
c. Number and type of radios
d. AP name

19. The join request message is sent to the primary controller only under what condition?

a. The controller is reachable.
b. The AP has an IP address.
c. The primary controller has low load.
d. The AP is primed.

20. If no primed information is available, what does the AP look for next when trying to join a controller?

a. A master controller
b. A primer controller
c. A new controller
d. A new subnet

21. When an AP retrieves its configuration file, where is it applied?

a. RAM
b. ROM
d. Flash

22. How many backup controllers are in an N + 1 design?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

23. Which method is considered the most redundant?

a. N + 1
b. N + N
c. N + N + 1
d. N * N + 1

24. Which AP mode can you use for site surveys?

a. Local mode
b. H-REAP mode
c. Bridge mode
d. Rogue Detection mode

25. In Monitor mode, which command can you use to change the value of the channels monitored?

a. config advanced channel-list
b. config advanced 802.11b channel-list monitor
c. config advanced 802.11b monitor channel-list
d. config advanced monitor channel-list

26. Which of the following describes a mobility group?

a. A set of users with rights to roam
b. A group of controllers configured with the same hostname
c. A group of controllers configured in the same mobility group
d. A set of controllers that roam

27. Controllers that are aware of each other but that are in different mobility groups are said to be in what?

a. Mobility chain
b. Mobility mode
c. Mobility-aware mode
d. Mobility domain

28. How many mobility domains can a controller be a member of?

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

29. True or false: A client can roam from one mobility group to another in the same mobility domain.

a. True
b. False

30. True or false: A client can roam between two controllers in different mobility domains.

a. True
b. False

31. Which of the following are valid roaming types? (Choose two.)

a. Layer 2 roaming
b. Seamless AP roaming
c. Layer 3 roaming
d. Layer 4 roaming

32. Which of the following statements is not true?

a. For roaming to work, the controllers need to be in the same mobility domain.
b. For roaming to work, the controllers need to run the same code version.
c. For roaming to work, the controllers need to operate in the same LWAPP mode.
d. For roaming to work, the SSID (WLAN) does not necessarily need to be the same.

33. What is the term for roaming from one AP to another AP managed by the same controller?

a. Same-controller roaming
b. Intercontroller roaming
c. Intracontroller roaming
d. This is not roaming.

34. What is the term for roaming from one AP to another AP managed by a different controller?

a. Same-controller roaming
b. Intercontroller roaming
c. Intracontroller roaming
d. This is not roaming.

35. What is it called when client traffic is tunneled back to the anchor controller before being sent to its destination?

a. Symmetric tunneling
b. Asymmetric tunneling
c. Anchor roaming
d. Layer 2 roaming

36. What is it called when client traffic is sent directly to a destination and return traffic goes to an anchor controller before being sent back to the client on a foreign controller?

a. Symmetric tunneling
b. Asymmetric tunneling
c. Anchor roaming
d. Layer 3 roaming

37. Which of the following describes a port as related to the controller terminology?

a. It is a logical interface.
b. It is a physical interface.
c. It is not an interface; it is a slot.
d. A port is a connection to an application; for example, port 23 would connect to Telnet.

38. What command configures a static route on the controller?

a. route add
b. ip route
c. default route
d. config route

39. Which port is active during the boot process?

a. Service
b. Management
c. AP-Manager
d. Virtual

40. Which of the following best defines a mobility group?

a. A group of APs that allow roaming
b. A group of controllers that communicate
c. A group of traveling clients
d. A group of mobile AP configurations

41. What is the default password for the Cisco controller CLI?

a. Cisco
b. cisco
c. admin
d. San-Fran

42. Which command is used to save the configuration from the Cisco controller CLI?

a. wr em
b. copy run start
c. save config
d. save

43. What is the default IP address of the Cisco controller?


44. Which is not a top-level menu of the Cisco controller?


45. Which is the correct path to create an interface?

a. CONTROLLER > Interfaces > New
b. CONTROLLER > Inventory > New Interface
d. CONTROLLER > Ports > New

46. When creating the WLAN profile, what two pieces of information do you need? (Choose two.)

a. Name
c. Port
d. Interface

47. What does it mean if the Radio Policy is set to All in the Configuration tab of the WLAN?

a. All WLANs are on.
b. The WLAN supports all radio types.
c. The WLAN has all radios in it.
d. Users must have all radios.

48. You have selected WIRELESS > Access Points > Radios > 802.11a/n. From there, you select the Configure option for one of the listed APs. What does the WLAN Override drop-down control?

a. The WLAN mode of the radio
b. Whether the WLAN SSID is broadcast via the radio
c. Whether a WLAN is accessible via the radio
d. Whether you can change the settings on this radio

49. Which management area provides information about APs that are not authorized in your network?

a. Access Point Summary
b. Client Summary
c. Top WLANs
d. Rogue Summary

50. Which three pieces of information can you find on the controller Summary page? (Choose all that apply.)

a. Software version
b. Internal temperature
c. Port speeds
d. System name

51. A radio power level of 3 indicates what?

a. Three times the power
b. The third level of power
c. 25% of the maximum power
d. 1/3 power

52. What criteria defined a wireless client, thus adding it to the Clients list?

a. A probe is seen.
b. It is associated.
c. It is authenticated.
d. It is statically defined.

53. How many rogue APs can one AP contain?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

54. What would cause a client to be excluded?

a. The client has passed 802.11 authentication five times.
b. The client has passed 802.11 association five times.
c. The client has failed 802.11 authentication five times.
d. The client has attempted 802.11 association five times.

55. A standalone AP has a console port. True or False?

a. True
b. False

56. Which methods can be used to assign an IP address to a standalone AP? (Choose all that apply.)

b. Static through the CLI
d. DNS

57. What are three methods that require an IP address? (Choose all that apply.)

a. Console to it using a console cable and the console port.
b. Telnet into it if it has an IP address.
c. Web browse to it if it has an IP address.
d. SSH into it if it has an IP address.

58. Which of the following methods can be used to obtain the IP address of the AP? (Choose all that apply.)

a. DHCP server logs
b. CDP
c. NTP server statistics
d. IP Setup Utility

59. You can apply a separate SSID to different radios. True or False?

a. True
b. False

60. What is required if you are converting from standalone to lightweight mode? (Choose all that apply.)

a. An upgrade image
b. A DHCP server
c. An upgrade tool
d. A WLC

61. If you are using the Autonomous to Lightweight Mode Upgrade tool, what else must you obtain from Cisco?

a. A TFTP server
b. A WCS
c. The correct LWAPP software (version 12.3(JA) or better)
d. Autonomous to Lightweight Mode Upgrade image

62. What protocol is used for the upgrade from autonomous to lightweight?

a. FTP
c. SCP
d. SSH

63. A controller must be reachable after the AP is upgraded for the AP to function. True or False?

a. True
b. False

64. The Cisco Mobility Express solution is part of what system?

d. IOS

65. Which of the following devices is not part of the Cisco Smart Business Communication System?

a. Cisco Unified Communications 500 Series for Small Businesses
b. Cisco Unified IP Phones
c. The Cisco 4402 Wireless LAN controller
d. The Cisco 521 Wireless Express Access Point

66. What protocol manages the Cisco 521 AP when operating in lightweight mode?

b. CDP
c. IP Discovery
d. A subset of LWAPP

67. The Cisco 521 AP supports which of the following protocols? (Choose all that apply.)

a. 802.11a
b. 802.11b
c. 802.11g
d. WPA2

68. The Cisco 526 Express Controller supports RRM. True or False?

a. True
b. False

69. The Cisco Mobility Express solution can be managed by which of the following? (Choose all that apply.)

a. Cisco Security Manager
b. Command-line interface
c. Web interface
d. CCA

70. From the CLI, which is not a valid boot option?

a. Run the primary image (Version (active).
b. Run the backup image (Version
c. Manually upgrade the primary image.
d. Manually downgrade the primary image.
e. Change the active boot image.
f. Clear the configuration.

71. The Cisco 526 Express Controller supports NTP. True or False?

a. True
b. False

72. Which of the following is the correct way to access the web interface of a Cisco 526 Express Controller if you have never performed CLI setup?


73. What is the PC application that manages the Cisco Mobility Express solution?

a. CCA
b. CSA
c. ACS
d. AAA

74. What is the name of the Windows utility for configuring wireless profiles?

a. Zero Day Configuration
b. Wireless Zero NetworkManager
c. AirPort Zero Configuration
d. Wireless Zero Configuration Utility

75. The Windows Wireless Zero Configuration Utility can set up which of the following enterprise class profiles? (Choose all that apply.)

a. 802.1x
c. WEP static keys
d. None of these

76. True or false: When the WZC is in use, the ADU can also be used.

a. True
b. False

77. True or false: The WZC will choose the most secure network available when starting up.

a. True
b. False

78. What configuration tool is used to set up wireless profiles on Mac OSX?

a. WZC
b. AirPort
c. AirWave
d. Aironet

79. What graphical configuration tool is used in Linux to set up wireless networks?

a. iwconfig
b. NetworkManager
c. WZC
d. Ubuntu ADU

80. Cisco offers which types of wireless cards? (Choose all that apply.)

a. Cardbus
b. PCI
c. USB
d. Flash

81. What does the term CAM refer to in the ADU advanced parameters?

a. Constant Awake Mode
b. Content Addressable Memory
c. Confidential Aironet Module
d. Constant Airwave Mode

82. When you perform a site survey with the CSSU, what indicates a good SNR?

a. A higher number in dBm
b. A lower number in dBm
c. The CSSU can’t determine the SNR.
d. An equal receive strength

83. What software lets you create profiles for deployment with the ADU?

d. SSC

84. What software is designed for both wired and wireless profile management and access to Cisco enterprise networks?

a. SSC
b. SSM
c. ASA
d. ADU

85. What program is designed for vendors to create compatible hardware?

a. CCX
b. Compatibility Program
c. CCA
d. Cisco Client Portability Program

86. Threats to wireless networks include which of the following? (Choose all that apply.)

a. Rogue APs
b. Client misassociation
c. Unauthorized port access
d. Stateful inspection

87. Which of the following can be used to prevent misassociation attacks? (Choose all that apply.)

a. Client MFP
b. Spoofing
c. Infrastructure MFP
d. Rogue-AP containment

88. Client MFP allows clients to perform what function?

a. Detect invalid clients
b. Detect invalid APs
c. Detect invalid controllers
d. Detect invalid SSIDs

89. To perform Client MFP, what version of CCX is required?

a. v1.x
b. v2.x
c. v5.x
d. v6.x

90. WEP uses which of the following encryption algorithms?

a. AES
c. MD5
d. RC4

91. What key size should be selected to perform 128-bit WEP with a Windows client?

a. 40-bit
b. 104-bit
c. 128-bit
d. 192-bit

92. How many bits does an IV add to a WEP key?

a. 24 bits
b. 48 bits
c. 188 bits
d. 8 bits

93. In centralized authentication, a certificate is used based on information from a trusted third party. What information is not included in a certificate?

a. Username
b. Public key
c. Validity dates
d. Session keys

94. Central authentication uses which IEEE specification?

a. 802.11a
b. 802.1q
c. 802.1d
d. 802.1x

95. Which protocol is used for the authentication server?

b. Active Directory

96. Which EAP method uses certificates on both the client and the server?

b. EAP-MD5

97. Which EAP method uses a PAC instead of certificates?

b. EAP-MD5

98. Which protocol requires the use of TKIP, but can optionally use AES?

a. WPA2
b. GTK
c. MS-CHAPv2
d. WPA

99. Which protocol mandates that AES must be supported but not TKIP?

a. WPA2
b. GTK
c. MS-CHAPv2
d. WPA

100. What are three benefits of the WCS?

a. Wireless planning
b. Wireless design
c. Wireless management
d. Wireless RF tagging

101. The Cisco Wireless Location Appliance can provide real-time tracking of up to how many clients?

a. 1500
b. 2500
c. 3500
d. 5000

102. WCS licensing can enable up to how many supported APs?

a. 5500
b. 2500
c. 2000
d. 5000

103. On which two operating systems can the WCS be installed?

a. Windows Server
b. Red Hat Linux
c. Solaris 9
d. Ubuntu Linux

104. Following recommended hardware requirements, you will be able to support how many controllers in a single WCS?

a. 500
b. 2500
c. 5000
d. 250

105. What type of web server does the WCS run?

a. IIS
b. Apache
c. Sun Java Web Server
d. A Proprietary Web Service

106. What action can you take if IIS is running on the server where you are installing the WCS? (Choose all that apply.)

a. Nothing; they do not conflict.
b. Just change to the port where you used the WCS.
c. Disable the IIS Server.
d. Uninstall IIS.

107. What is the first action when accessing the WCS for the first time?

a. Enter a license key.
b. Add a controller.
c. Save the configuration.
d. Archive the server.

108. What is the first page you come to upon logging into the WCS?

a. WCS Start
b. WCS Home
c. WCS Summary
d. WCS Monitor

109. The Client tab provides information about which of the following? (Choose all that apply.)

a. Top APs by client count
b. Clients that are associated
c. Security configuration of the AP
d. Rogue AP counts

110. Which menu allows you to add users of the WCS system?

a. Administration > AAA
b. Configuration > Users
c. Authentication > AAA
d. Monitor > AAA

111. Logging options can be changed in which menu?

a. Administration > SNMP > Logging
b. Administration > Syslog
c. Configuration > Logging
d. Administration > Logging

112. You can add a controller to the WCS through which menu?

a. Configure > Controllers
b. Controllers > Add
c. Administration > Controllers > Add
d. Management > Controllers

113. What are the two ways to add a controller to the WCS?

a. Use a CSV file
b. Use SNMP discovery
c. Use Device Info
d. Import from CiscoWorks DCR

114. APs are configured from which menu?

a. Configure > APs
b. Configure > Controllers > APs
c. Configure > Access Points
d. You do not configure APs, just controllers. APs automatically synch their configuration with that of the controller.

115. How can you verify that the configuration on the controller is consistent with the information in the WCS database?

a. Use the Compare tool.
b. Use the Sync button.
c. Use the Audit Config page.
d. You cannot verify this information.

116. You want to configure general settings for a controller once and then apply those settings to all the controllers in your network. This is a perfect opportunity to use what feature of the WCS?

a. Copy/Paste
c. FTP
d. Templates

117. You can use the WCS templates only for controllers. True or False?

a. True
b. False

118. Auto provisioning relies on which DHCP option?

a. 66
b. 53
c. 20
d. 150

119. Which of the following WCS menu options enables you to find a list of maps?

a. Monitor > Maps
b. Configure > Maps
c. Administration > Maps
d. WCS > Maps

120. TheWCS maps consist of which of the following elements? (Choose all that apply.)

a. Campus
b. Building
c. Floor
d. Room

121. When you create a map, what important characteristics should you add? (Choose all that apply.)

a. Obstructions
b. Walls
c. Doors
d. People

122. By adding certain elements to the WCS maps, you aid which process?

a. RF modeling
b. RF surveys
c. Site survey
d. Imaging

123. Planning mode lets you generate heat maps of theoretical APs placed on your map. The heat map then lets you generate what?

a. A new map
b. A summary of equipment used
c. A proposal of equipment required and deployment locations
d. Log messages in the WCS

124. Which of the following is a valuable tool accessible from the Monitoring menu?

a. Site survey
b. Reset controllers
c. Client troubleshooting
d. SNMP traps

125. What do you choose to verify the version of hardware?

a. Controller > General
b. Controller > Inventory
c. Management > Summary
d. Monitor > Summary

126. Which extension is used in controller upgrade files?

a. .bin
b. .exe
c. .cfg
d. .aes

127. Which protocols are used to upgrade a controller? (Choose two.)

a. FTP
d. SCP

128. What does an AP do if a controller is running a higher version of software?

a. It does nothing; they don’t need to be the same.
b. It automatically upgrades to the same version as the controller.
c. It causes the controller to downgrade to the same version as the AP.
d. It reboots continuously and keeps searching for a controller with the same version.

129. If an AP leaves one controller and associates with another, what does it check?

a. The controller’s hardware version
b. How many licenses the controller has
c. The version the controller is running
d. The version that other APs are running

130. The WCS is upgraded using what method?

a. WCS code upgrade script
b. FTP
d. SCP

131. How do you save the controller’s configuration using the web interface?

a. Choose Commands > Save.
b. Click the Save Configuration link.
c. Choose Commands > Copy-Run-Start.
d. Choose Controllers > Save.

132. In what format is the controller configuration file?

a. XML
d. Clear text

133. At what layers of the OSI model does trouble happen most often?

a. Layer 1
b. Layers 1 through 3
c. Layers 2 through 6
d. Above Layer 7

134. What are some actions regarding physical characteristics that you can use for troubleshooting? (Choose all that apply.)

a. Analyze port LEDs
b. Verify wiring
c. Check the internal fans
d. View debugs

135. Which of the following accurately describes the hidden node issue?

a. A node is hidden under a desk and used to attack the wireless network.
b. A node is accessing the network from the parking lot.
c. Two nodes are attempting to send at the same time. They are out of range of each other but not of the AP.
d. Nodes on the network access hidden APs.

136. Which of the following best describes the exposed node issue?

a. Two nodes are sending on the same channel to different APs. The cells are too close, so a collision occurs.
b. A node is attacking the network in plain view.
c. A node is on the wireless network without antivirus software.
d. A node is listening on undesired ports.

137. When an AP has a greater RF range than a client, the client can see the AP but annot associate with it because the client frames do not reach the AP. What is this situation known as?

a. The Weak Antenna syndrome
b. The Weak Link issue
c. The Half Duplex situation
d. The Near/Far issue

138. From where can you execute debug commands?

a. The GUI
b. The CLI
c. The GUI and the CLI
d. The WCS only

139. What command provides a summary of clients?

a. show clients
b. show client summary
c. show summary
d. show ap client summary

140. If you leave a debug turned on, what happens?

a. It consumes all the resources on the controller.
b. It runs continuously.
c. It turns off when the controller reloads.
d. It becomes disabled when the session times out.

141. How do you enable client troubleshooting?

a. Issue the CLI command debug mac addr mac_address_of_client.
b. Click the Troubleshoot button from the Clients Summary page of the WCS.
c. Select the client from the Clients drop-down menu.
d. Use an access list to match a client and tie it to a debug.

142. Where would you find information equivalent to the show client summary command within the controller interface?

a. MANAGEMENT > Clients
b. CONTROLLER > Clients
c. MONITOR > Clients > Detail
d. WLANs > Clients

143. Facility Level 5 is what?


144. WCS is used to troubleshoot client-to-AP connectivity. True or false?

a. True
b. False

145. Which of the following devices does the Cisco Spectrum Expert provide information about?

a. Microwave ovens
b. RC cars
c. Controllers
d. Wired clients

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