Windows Server 2008 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)

With the introduction of new revisions to Microsoft products—for example, Windows, Exchange, and Communications Server—we have seen a trend toward “roles” within each product, as opposed to the various products being an all-in-one type of solution (as with Exchange 2007), or being additional features that work as a snap-in, such as DNS in Windows 2003.

Also Read: Windows Server 2008 Knowledge Assessment Quiz

The new roles in Windows Server 2008 provide a new way for you to determine how they are implemented, configured, and managed within an Active Directory domain or forest.

1. What must each host on a TCP/IP network be configured with in order to communicate with other hosts?

a. Preferred DNS server
b. Preferred WINS server
c. IP address
d. Default gateway

2. What is the process of transmitting TCP/IP traffic from one IP subnet to another?

a. Submitting
b. Routing
c. Transmitting
d. Broadcasting

3. An IP network that is formatted such as 192.168.1.0/24 is referred to as what type of notation?

a. CIDR notation
b. NAT notation
c. IPv4 notation
d. IPv6 notation

4. What is the default network protocol of the Internet and most modern corporate networks?

a. IPX/SPX
b. NetBEUI
c. AppleTalk
d. TCP/IP

5. What was used by TCP/IP networks to perform name resolution prior to the introduction of the Domain Name System (DNS)?

a. HOSTS files
b. HOST files
c. LM files
d. WINS files

6. What is the process of dividing a large TCP/IP address space into multiple smaller networks called?

a. Routing
b. NATting
c. Subnetting
d. Supernetting

7. What technology is used by private network ranges that has extended the useful life of IPv4 addressing and slowed the adoption rate of IPv6?

a. Subnetting
b. NAT
c. Routing
d. CIDR

8. Which TCP/IP configuration item allows client computers to communicate with other computers that are located on remote networks?

a. Default gateway
b. Router
c. Hub
d. Switch

9. On a TCP/IP network that uses the Domain Name System (DNS) for name resolution, what unique configuration item must each TCP/IP host possess?

a. HOSTS file
b. LMHOSTS file
c. Fully-qualified domain name
d. UNC name

10. In what format are IPv4 IP addresses most commonly written?

a. Hexadecimal
b. Binary
c. Dotted-decimal
d. Dotted-hexadecimal

11. What type of license key allows you to host an activation service locally within your own network?

a. Multiple Activation Key (MAK)
b. Key Management System (KMS)
c. Key Activation System (KAS)
d. Multiple Management System (MMS)

12. What type of volume uses 50% of available drive space to provide fault tolerance for the volume?

a. RAID-0
b. RAID-1
c. RAID-5
d. RAID-6

13. Which disk formatting option will cause a disk to appear as a folder within an existing volume?

a. Mount point
b. Mirrored volume
c. Striped volume
d. GPT point

14. Which Windows Server 2008 feature installs and configured wireless connections and wireless LAN profiles?

a. Network and Sharing Center
b. Windows Firewall with Advanced Security
c. Wireless Networking
d. Network Access Protection

15. What was the primary means of name resolution on Windows networks prior to the introduction of Windows 2000 and Active Directory?

a. AppleTalk
b. Domain Name System (DNS)
c. HOSTS files
d. NetBIOS

16. Which feature is used to perform backups and restores of Windows volumes?

a. NTBackup
b. Windows Server Backup
c. Windows Backup
d. Windows NT Backup

17. Which networking service is used to automatically associate NetBIOS names with IP addresses?

a. DNS
b. NetBEUI
c. WINS
d. AppleTalk

18. Which disk partition style is recommended for disks larger than 2TB, or disks that are used in Itanium computers?

a. Master Boot Record (MBR)
b. GUID Partition Table (GPT)
c. Master Partition Table (MPT)
d. GUID Boot Record (GBR)

19. What is used to manage the licensing process for volume licenses of Windows Vista and Windows Server 2008?

a. Volume Activation
b. Activation keys
c. Microsoft Select
d. Enterprise Agreement

20. Which volume contains the operating system files on a Windows computer?

a. System volume
b. Boot volume
c. Mirrored volume
d. Striped volume

21. Which of the following DHCP message types is sent first in the process of obtaining an address lease?

a. DHCPOFFER
b. DHCPACK
c. DHCPDISCOVER
d. DHCPREQUEST

22. At which layer of the OSI model does DHCP operate?

a. Session layer
b. Network layer
c. Application layer
d. Presentation layer

23. What protocol is used by the Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)?

a. User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
b. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
c. Internet Protocol (IP)
d. Internet Message Control Protocol (ICMP)

24. A DHCP client first attempts to reacquire its lease at half the lease time, which is known as:

a. DHCP reservation
b. Tl
c. T2
d. DHCP lease

25. The is composed of the remaining addresses within a DHCP scope once all exclusion ranges have been applied.

a. total address pool
b. available address pool
c. net address pool
d. remaining address pool

26. The following is a lightweight version of FTP that uses the UDP protocol, which is used by the BOOTP protocol to transmit network configuration information:

a. TCP
b. IP
c. TFTP
d. SNMP

27. The following process will populate DHCP client lease information from the registry to the DHCP database:

a. Backup
b. Automatic restore
c. Reconciliation
d. Discovery

28. The following is an administrative grouping of scopes that is used to support multiple logical subnets on a single network segment:

a. host
b. scope
c. super scope
d. multiunit

29. This indicates the location of the last information that was successfully written from transaction logs to a database file such as a DHCP database.

a. Log file
b. JET file
c. Checkpoint file
d. Check file

30. The following is a hexadecimal address that is uniquely associated with a specific Network Interface Card (NIC):

a. MAC
b. JET
c. BOOTP
d. IETF

31. This DNS configuration item will forward DNS queries to different servers based on the domain name of the query.

a. Iterative forwarder
b. Recursive forwarder
c. Conditional forwarder
d. IPv6 forwarder

32. This type of zone takes human-readable FQDNs and translates them into IP addresses.

a. Standard zone
b. Forward lookup zone
c. Reverse lookup zone
d. Inverse lookup zone

33. This zone is used in conjunction with IPv4 IP addresses to resolve queries for IPv4 IP addresses to resolve queries for FQDNs.

a. In.addr-arpa
b. In.addr-ipv4
c. In.addr-ipv4.arpa
d. In.ipv4.arpa

34. The IPv6 DNS host record is referred to as a(n):

a. A record
b. AA record
c. AAA record
d. AAAA record

35. A DNS server that hosts a primary or secondary zone containing a particular record can issue the following response to a query for that record:

a. Authoritative answer
b. Non-authoritative answer
c. Referral answer
d. Non-referral answer

36. You can secure an Active Directory integrated DNS server, zone, or record by applying the following to it:

a. System Access Control List
b. Security Access Control List
c. Discretionary Access Control List
d. Distributed Access Control List

37. This zone type contains only SOA, name server, and glue records for the relevant zone.

a. Secondary zone
b. Stub zone
c. Primary zone
d. Caching-only zone

38. Data from a primary zone is transmitted to secondary zones using the following:

a. Zone transfer
b. Zone transmission
c. DNS Zone
d. Active Directory replication

39. These contain the names and IP addresses of the DNS servers authoritative for the root zone.

a. “.” zone
b. Top-level zone
c. Root Hints
d. Root Cache

40. The following feature is available only on Active Directory integrated DNS zones:

a. Dynamic updates
b. Incremental zone transfers
c. Reverse lookup zones
d. Secure dynamic updates

41. The IP address 255.255.255.255 represents __________________ in the IP Routing table.

a. Loopback address
b. Limited broadcast address
c. Directly-attached network route
d. Default route

42. To allow users to specify a call-back number when they connect to a remote access server via modem, you will enable the following setting:

a. No Callback
b. Set by Caller
c. Always Callback To
d. Verify Caller ID

43. Routing Information Protocol v2 (RIPv2) is an example of a:

a. Routing table
b. Routing prompt
c. Routing chart
d. routing protocol

44. Windows Server 2008 can provide remote access services through

a. Virtual Private Network (VPN) or through: a. Dial-Up Networking (DUN)
b. Remote Callback
c. Demand-Dial Routing
d. X.25

45. When a workstation ends a session with an 802. IX-secured network port, it sends the following to inform the network access server to set the port back to an “Unauthorized” status:

a. EAP-Inform
b. EAP-Discover
c. EAP-Logoff
d. EAP-Request

46. If an IP Routing Table contains two routes to the same destination network, the route with the lowest __________________ will be selected first.

a. Weight
b. Metric
c. GUID
d. Priority

47. Network information at the Network Layer of the OSI model is organized into:

a. Bits
b. Frames
c. Datagrams
d. Packets

48. in an 802. IX infrastructure, an NPS or RADIUS server performs the role of the:

a. Applicant
b. Supplicant
c. Authorization Server (AS)
d. Authenticator

49. The following RRAS service allows multiple computers on an internal network to share a single public IP address to access the Internet:

a. Network Access Control
b. Network Address Translation (NAT)
c. Network Access Protection
d. Network Address Control

50. The following route is used by a computer’s default gateway to send traffic to remote networks:

a. Default route
b. Limited broadcast address
c. Broadcast address
d. Default interface

51. An alternative to the MultiMate replication model used in DFS is:

a. Unilateral replication
b. Single master replication
c. Flat namespace replication
d. Hierarchical namespace replication

52. A server in a replication group is referred to as a:

a. Namespace
b. Namespace server
c. Member
d. Root target

53. This refers to the ability of DFS clients to revert back to folder targets that have been unavailable due to server or network outages.

a. Client fallback
b. Server fallback
c. Namespace fallback
d. Target fallback

54. A disk partition that can hold data but not an operating system is called a(n):

a. Primary partition
b. Boot partition
c. System partition
d. Extended partition

55. This DFS component is responsible for maintaining a list of DFS shared folders and responding to user requests for those folders.

a. Folder target
b. Member server
c. Namespace server
d. Root server

56. A DFS contains a virtual representation of the shared folders on all DFS target servers.

a. Directory
b. Namespace
c. Target
d. Member

57. The Distributed File System uses the following replication model to keep servers in a replication group up to date:

a. Multiple Master Replications
b. Single Master Replication
c. Root Master Replication
d. Distributed Master Replication

58. In this topology, every member of a DPS replication group replicates with every other member, for full replication connectivity.

a. Hub and spoke replication
b. Complete replication
c. Direct replication
d. Full mesh replication

59. The following service is required on a Windows Server 2008 server in order to enable file sharing:

a. Workstation Service
b. SMB Service
c. IIS Service
d. Server Service

60, to enable replication for a DPS folder with multiple folder targets, you must create the following:

a. Replication group
b. Replication target
c. Replication folders
d. Replication servers

61. which printer permission allows users to pause, resume, restart, and cancel all users’ documents and to control job settings for all documents?

a. Print
b. Manage Documents
c. Manage Printers
d. Full Control

62. What document format is a new, platform-independent format included with Windows Vista and Windows Server 2008?

a. XML Paper Specification (XPS)
b. Rich Text Format (RTF)
c. Extensible Markup Language (XML)
d. Directory Services Markup Language (DSML)

63. What kind of device receives print jobs from clients and sends them to either locallyattached or network-attached printer devices?

a. Print device
b. Print queue
c. Print server
d. Print driver

64. What kind of print device is connected to a TCP/IP network, either directly or through another computer?

a. Print server
b. Local print device
c. Network-attached print device
d. Print queue

65. What can you create to connect a single print server to multiple print devices?

a. Print server
b. Print queue
c. Network printer
d. Printer pool

66. What permission allows a user to share a printer, delete a printer, and change a printer’s properties?

a. Print
b. Manage Documents
c. Manage Printers
d. Read Printers

67. What kind of printer is directly attached to a single computer, regardless of the interface it uses to connect?

a. Network-attached printer
b. Local printer
c. Serial printer
d. Parallel printer

68. What protocol allows users to print documents through an IIS server?

a. HTTP
b. HTTPS
c. FireWire
d. IPP

69. What describes the actual hardware that produces hard copy documents on paper or other print media?

a. Print queue
b. Print device
c. Print server
d. Printer pool

70. What permission allows users to pause, manage, and cancel only those printer documents that they have created?

a. Manage Printers
b. Manage Documents
c. Print
d. Full Control

71. This feature will automatically check for software updates that are published on a WSUS server.

a. Windows Update
b. Automatic Updates
c. Windows Catalog
d. Automatic Patching

72. This view of the Windows Event Viewer allows you to configure a Windows Server 2008 computer to act as a repository for Event Viewer entries from one or more remote computers.

a. WSUS
b. Windows Catalog
c. Network Monitor
d. Forwarded Events

73. The following user group can view both real-time and historical data within the Performance Monitor console, but cannot create or modify Data Collector Sets:

a. Performance Monitor Users
b. Performance Log Users
c. Power Users
d. Users

74. In order to collect events from remote computers that match the criteria of one or more event filters that you define, you will create one or more of the following:

a. Custom View
b. Subscription
c. Forwarded Event
d. Event Viewer

75. What protocol does the Windows Event Viewer use to configure event forwarding?

a. ARP
b. RFC over IP
c. WS-Directory Services
d. WS-Management

76. This is a new Event Log in Windows Server 2008, used to capture information regarding operating system and application installations and un-installations.

a. Application Log
b. System Log
c. Setup Log
d. Administrative Events

77. The following service allows you to configure a single server as a repository of Event Viewer information for multiple computers:

a. Windows Server Update Service
b. Windows Event Collector Service
c. Windows Event Viewer
d. Windows Event Forwarder

78. The following allows you to display only those packets matching a particular set of criterion among a larger set of packets that have been captured by Network Monitor:

a. Capture Filter
b. Event Filter
c. Custom View
d. Display Filter

79. the following user group can view both real-time and historical data within the Performance Monitor console, and can also create and modify Data Collector Sets:

a. Performance Monitor Users
b. Performance Log Users
c. Power Users
d. Users

80. The following is a server-side component within WSUS that retrieves the latest critical updates from the Windows Update Web site:

a. Content Synchronization Service
b. Microsoft Update
c. Performance Monitor
d. Event Forwarder

81. This is used to provide gateway-to-gateway protection for site-to-site communications that cross the Internet (or other public networks).

a. Transport mode
b. Quick mode
c. Main mode
d. Tunnel mode

82. Windows Server 2003 supports the following feature, which is used to determine new keying material through a new Diffie Hellman exchange on a regular basis:

a. Dynamic rekeying
b. Dynamic mode
c. Dynamic association
d. Dynamic policy

83. The following protocol provides confidentiality (in addition to authentication, integrity, and anti-replay) for the IP payload:

a. Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
b. Authentication header (AH)
c. NTLMv2
d. LM

84. This suite of protocols was introduced to provide a series of cryptographic algorithms that can be used to provide security for all TCP/IP hosts at the Internet layer, regardless of the actual application that is sending or receiving data.

a. ESP
b. IKE
c. IPSec
d. NTLM

85. The following is a value contained in a received IKE message that is used to help identify the corresponding main mode SA:

a. Cookie
b. Cache
c. Exception
d. ISAKMP

86. This Connection Security Rule allows you to specify one or more computers that do not need to be authenticated in order to pass traffic.

a. Isolation
b. Server-to-server
c. Tunnel
d. Authentication exemption

87. You can configure the Windows Firewall to allow one or more inbound connections based on any of the following that you configure:

a. Exemption
b. Isolation
c. Exception
d. Tunnel

88. An IP Filter in which traffic that is defined in one direction will also be defined in the opposite direction is said to be:

a. Symmetrical
b. Mirrored
c. Asymmetrical
d. Exempted

89. The following NTLM Authentication type is disabled by default in Windows Server 2003 and Windows Server 2008 servers; it should not be used in a production environment as it is weak and can be easily hacked by malicious users:

a. NTLMv2 authentication
b. NTLM authentication
c. LM authentication
d. Kerberos v5 authentication

90. This is a mathematical value that is used to provide an integrity check for a TCP or UDP packet.

a. Checksum
b. Header
c. Hash
d. Cipher Suite

91. Each server that functions as a CA must be configured with a(n):

a. Revocation configuration
b. Key Recovery Agent
c. User template
d. Online Responder

92. An organization can have one or more of these to distribute the load of issuing certificates in a geographically dispersed organization:

a. Root CA
b. Enterprise CA
c. Standalone CA
d. Intermediate CA

93. In order to authenticate using a smart card that has been configured for their use, a user must have the following installed at their workstation:

a. smart card enrollment station
b. Online Responder
c. smart card reader
d. smart card enrollment agent

94. Which component of Active Directory Certificate Services uses the Online Certificate Status Protocol to respond to client requests?

a. NDES
b. Online Responder
c. Certificate Revocation List
d. Subordinate CA

95. The IPSec NAP Enforcement method relies on this type of PKI certificate to perform its enforcements.

a. OCSP certificate
B. recovery certificate
c. NAP certificate
d. health certificate

96. A server that operates the NAP Enforcement Server components is referred to as a(n):

a. enforcement agent
b. enforcement point
c. enforcement service
d. enforcement mark

97. The Network Device Enrollment Service (NDES) uses the following protocol to enroll network devices for PKI certificates:

a. Certificate Revocation Protocol
b. Online Certificate Status Protocol
c. Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol
d. Certificate Issuance Protocol

98. Statements of Health from each SHA are combined to create a:

a. System Statement of Health
b. Statement of Health Response
c. Overall Statement of Health
d. System Statement of Health Response

99. The following NAP component transmits information between the NAP Enforcement Clients and the System Health Agents:

a. NAP Client
b. NAP Service
c. NAP Enforcement Service
d. NAP Agent

100. This provides a detailed explanation of how a particular Certification Authority manages certificates and keys.

a. Certificate Revocation List
b. Key Management Service
c. Certificate Practice Statement
d. Revocation Configuration

101. This type of backup will completely reformat the target drive that hosts the backup files.

a. VSS full backup
b. normal backup
c. manual backup
d. scheduled backup

102. This type of disk quota allows the user to access storage space beyond the allotted amount and simply sends an e-mail notification when the quota has been exceeded.

a. hard quota
b. soft quota
c. manual quota
d. automatic quota

103. This type of restore can be used to recover an entire server after it has experienced a hardware failure or other disaster recovery scenario.

a. bare-metal restore
b. manual restores
c. volume restores
d. critical restore

104. This backup type will retain the Application log files on the local server after the backup is completed.

a. VSS full backup
b. copy backup
c. manual backup
d. scheduled backup

105. This quota type prohibits users from consuming any disk space beyond what has been defined within the quota.

a. hard quota
b. soft quota
c. manual quota
d. NTFS quota

106. This is the only type of quota available on servers that do not have the File Server Resource Manager role service installed.

a. hard quota
b. soft quota
c. manual quota
d. NTFS quota

107. All Windows disk quotas are based on the following to determine the amount of space being used by a particular user.

a. Volume Shadow Copies
b. snapshots
c. file ownership
d. volume size

108. This backup type will update the servers backup history and will clear the Application log files on the server.

a. VSS full backup
b. manual backup
c. copy backup
d. scheduled backup

109. This collection of disk quota settings can be used to create numerous quota assignments all containing consistent configuration settings.

a. hard quota
b. soft quota
c. quota template
d. NTFS quota

110. This backup technology was introduced by Windows Server 2008 and relies on the Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS).

a. Windows Server Backup
b. VSS full backup
c. Shared Copies of Shadowed Folders
d. snapshot backups

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